Polity - Prelims Previous Year Questions [Set-A]
2024
66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
68. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions a special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
71. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
74. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
76. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
77. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
80. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answers using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
84. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
94. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
95. Concerning the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
2023
31. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
32. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It- secures social justice, social equality and social security.
34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
35. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
36. Consider the following statements :
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent .
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes neçessary for Finance Bill
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
39. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
40. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statemnent-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
77. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
80.Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
85. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statemnent-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
2022
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, The contempt of courts act, 1971 was passed.
2. The constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the high courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The constitution of India defines civil contempt and criminal contempt.
4. In India the parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on contempt of court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 3 only
12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. The Bar Council has the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the constitution requires a prior recommendation on the president of India.
2. When a constitution amendment bill is presented to the president of India, it is obligatory for the president of India to give his/her assent.
3. A constitution amendment bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
14. Consider the following statements:
1. The constitution of India classifies the ministers into 4 ranks viz. Cabinet minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To rectify the declaration of emergency
2. To pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the president of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
16. With the reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within 6 months of being appointed to the house.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney general of India and solicitor general of India are the only officers of the government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the parliament of India.
2. According to the constitution of India, the attorney general of India submits his resignation when the government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. With the difference to the writs issued by the courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a company even though it may be a government company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the court to obtain the Writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
20. With reference to deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the rules of procedure and conduct of business in Lok Sabha, the election of deputy speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as deputy speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The deputy speaker has the same power as of the speaker when presiding over the sitting of the house and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of deputy speaker is that the motion is moved by the speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
73. If a particular area is brought under the 5th schedule of the constitution of India,which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
b) this would create a local self governing body in that area.
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The state having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the environment (protection) act, 1986?
a) Central water Commission
b) central groundwater board
c) central groundwater authority
d) national water development agency
2021
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The governor of the Reserve Bank of India(RBI) is appointed by the central government.
2. Certain provisions in the constitution of India give the central government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
77. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model different from that model?
1. As regards legislation ,the British parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2.In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the amendment of an act of the parliament are referred to the constitution bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. With reference to the union government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the administrative reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the prime minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. ‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which article of the constitution of India?
a) Article 15
b) Article19
c) Article 21
d) Article 29
80. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from 3 constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha election Sri Devi Lal contested from 3 Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements:
1. ‘Right to the city’ is an agreed human right and the UN-habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the city’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the city’ means that the state cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorised colonies in the city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3
82. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
84. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
85. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44
86. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The union legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The fundamental rights are enforceable by courts of law.
87. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
a) community of persons permanently occupying and different territory independent of external control and possessing an organised government.
b) a politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
c) a number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government.
d) a society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary.
88. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the head of state.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
90. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
a) a committed judiciary
b) centralization of powers
c) elected government
d) separation of powers
91. Under the Indian constitution, concentration of wealth violates
a) the right to equality
b) the directive principles of state policy
c) the right to freedom
d) the concept of welfare
92. What is the position of the right to property in India?
a) Legal rights available to citizens only.
b) legal rights available to any person
c) fundamental rights available to citizens only
d) neither fundamental right nor legal right
93. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
a) A Democratic Republic
b) a sovereign Democratic Republic
c) a sovereign secular Democratic Republic
d) a sovereign socialist secular Democratic Republic
94. Constitutional government means
a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
b) a government whose head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
2020
2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
a) the matter of creating new All India services
b) amending the constitution
c) the removal of the government
d) making cut motions
4. Which one of the following categories of fundamental rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
a) Right against exploitation
b) right to freedom
c) right to constitutional remedies
d) right to equality
5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
a) the preamble of the constitution
b) a directive principle of state policy
c) the 7th schedule
d) the conventional practice
6. Along with the budget, the finance minister also places other documents before the parliament which include ‘The macroeconomic framework statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
a) long standing parliamentary convention
b) article 112 and article 110 (1) of the constitution of India
c) article 113 of the constitution of India
d) provisions of the fiscal responsibility and budget management act, 2003.
7. A constitutional government by definition is a
a) government by legislature
b) popular government
c) multi-party government
d) limited government
8. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
11. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
b) the government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
c) the government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
d) the government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term.
12. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Preamble
d) Seventh Schedule
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
a) the final goal of a stateless society
b) Class struggle
c) Abolition of private property
d) economic determinism
16. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect.
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.
18. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
19. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for 6 months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state.
2. According to the Representation of people act, 195,1 a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for 5 years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements:
1. The president of India can summon a session of the parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The constitution of India provides for 3 sessions of the parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all 3 sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
2019
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th amendment to the constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the digits of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less than 2/3 of total members of that house present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1,3 and 4
47. The 9th schedule was introduced in the constitution of India during the Prime Ministership of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal bahadur Shastri
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai
49. Consider the following statements:
1. The parliament (prevention of disqualification) act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above mentioned Act was amended 5 times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
50. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a) Third schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule
52. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The decisions taken by the election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the president of India can declare a financial emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.
d) State legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
53. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 29
66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
69. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3,4 and 5
d) 2 and 5
81. With reference to the constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2.An Amendment to the constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
b) Absence of restraint
c) opportunity to do whatever one likes.
d) opportunity to develop oneself fully
2018
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “leader of the opposition” was organised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha,if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the leader of the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. With reference to the parliament of India, which of the following parliamentary committees scrutinises and reports to the house whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub rules, by laws, etc. Conferred by the constitution or delegated by the parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation?
a) Committee on government assurances
b) committee on subordinate legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) business advisory committee
31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A money bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c) A money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
32. With reference to the election of the president of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
41. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ‘Rule of Law’?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law.
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
53. If the President of India exercises his powers as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
b) the powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
92. Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of right to life and personal liberty. Which of the following in the constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd amendment to the constitution.
b) Article 17 and the directive principles of state policy in part IV
c) article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in part III
d) article 24 and the provisions under the 44th amendment to the constitution.
2017
1. With reference to the parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Private members bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the president of India.
2. Recently, a private members bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
a) privileges
b) Restraints
c) competition
d) ideology
7. Which principle among the following was added to the directive principles of state policy by the 42nd amendment to the constitution?
a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
b) participation of workers in the management of industries.
c) right to work, education and public assistance.
d) securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers.
8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Rights are claims of the state against the citizens.
b) Rights and privileges which are incorporated in the constitution of a state.
c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
a) Federalism
b) Democratic decentralisation
c) Administrative delegation
d) Direct democracy
17. Consider the following statements:
with the reference to the constitution of India, the directive principles of state policy constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function.
2. Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. With the reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held by benami are liable for confiscation by the government.
3. The act provides for 3 authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the fundamental duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A Legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
38. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?
a) Liberty of thought
b) economic liberty
c) liberty of expression
d) liberty of belief
39. With the reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian industry.
2. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the government.
Which of the above statements Is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
b) The method for strengthening executive leadership.
c) A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
d) Band of dedicated party workers.
46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
a) the executive and legislature work independently.
b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
d) The head of the government cannot be changed without election.
47. In the context of India which one of the following is the correct relationship between rights and duties?
a) Rights are correlated with duties.
b) rights are personal and hence independent of society and duties.
c) Rights, not duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
d) Duties, not rights, are important for the stability of the state.
48. The mind of the makers of the constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
a) The preamble
b) The fundamental rights
c) The directive principles of state policy
d) The fundamental duties
50. The parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
57. For Election to the Lok Sabha,a nomination paper can be filed by
a) anyone residing in India
b)a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
d) any citizen of India
76. Consider the following statements:
1. In the elections for Lok Sabha or state assembly the winning candidate must get at least 50% of the votes polled to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India in Lok Sabha the speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the deputy speaker to the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
c) Constitutional Right
d) Legal Right
90. Consider the following statements:
1. The election Commission of India is a 5 member body.
2. The Union ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
92. In India, Judicial Review implies
a) the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) The power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the legislatures.
c) the power of the judiciary to review all the relative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
d) the power of the judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequence of the proclamation of the president’s rule in state?
1. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the state
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
97. Which of the following are envisaged by the right against exploitation in the constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1,2 and 4 only
b) 2,3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the cabinet form of government:
a) an arrangement for minimising the criticism against the government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the government to the people.
d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) powers have been clearly divided between the centre and the states.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
2016
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha , which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the governor of that state.
2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership.
c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.
100. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2015
7. Consider the following statements regarding the directive principles of state policy:
1. The principles spell out the socio economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a money bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands for grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the annual financial statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
37. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament, it has to be passed by
a) a simple majority of members present and voting
b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
c) two-thirds majority of the houses
d) absolute majority of the houses
44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
51. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None
59. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
b) determine the boundaries between States
c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
d) protect the interests of all the border states
60. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 ,2 and 3
61. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
d) The Supreme Court of India
63. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
82. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
83. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
a) Preamble of the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Fundamental Duties
85. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
89.The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
a)Preamble
b)Directive Principles of State Policy
c)Fundamental Rights
d)Seventh Schedule
91. There is a parliamentary system of Government in India because the
a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
2014
18. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
a) The Committee on Public Accounts
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
d) The Committee on Petitions.
49. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
a) Second Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eight Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule
55. In the Constitution of India, promotion of International peace and security is included in the
a) Preamble to the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Ninth Schedule
58. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
59. Consider the following statements:
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State authority
2. places effective restrictions on the authority of the state in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
60. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President rule.
2) Appointing the Ministers.
3) Reserving certain bills passed by the State legislature for consideration of the president of India.
4) Making the rules to conduct the business of the state government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its
a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) Original jurisdiction
d) Writ jurisdiction
75.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
a)The President of India
b)The Parliament
c)The Chief Justice of India
d)The Law Commission
Answer Key
2023
31-A
32-A
33-C
34-X[dropped]
35-A
36-D
37-B
39-B
40-C
77-B
80-A
85-C
2022
11-B
12-B
13-B
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-D
18-D
18-D
20-A
73-A
75-C
2021
1-C
77-C
78-B
79-C
80-X[dropped]
81-D
82-B
83-B
84-D
85-A
86-A
97-A
88-A
89-A
90-D
91-B
92-B
93-B
94-D
2020
2-B
4-D
5-B
6-D
7-D
8-D
11-B
12-A
13-D
14-A
16-D
18-D
19-D
20-C
2019
45-B
46-C
47-A
49-A
50-B
52-B
53-C
56-B
66-C
69-A
81-D
85-D
2018
1-B
5-A
20-B
31-C
32-A
39-A
40-B
41-C
45-C
53-B
92-C
2017
1-D
5-A
7-B
8-C
16-B
17-D
20-B
36-D
38-B
39-C
42-A
46-C
47-A
48-A
50-D
57-C
76-D
86-C
90-D
92-A
96-B
97-C
99-C
100-D
2016
1-B
25-D
40-B
95-D
100-B
2015
7-C
27-B
37-A
44-D
51-A
59-A
60-C
61-D
63-C
82-D
83-D
85-C
89-B
91-D
2014
18-B
49-D
55-B
58-C
59-B
60-B
62-A
63-C
71-C
75-B