Geography- Pre PYQ[Set-A] Explanation
Physical Geography
2024
1. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Explanation: The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial radiation than by incoming solar radiation. Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases absorb long wave (terrestrial) radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect.
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation: The troposphere is thicker at the equator because strong convectional currents transport heat to greater heights, which causes the troposphere to expand vertically.
3. Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (d) All four
Explanation: Volcanic eruptions produce pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, nitrogen compounds, and sulphur compounds.
4. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend toward the north.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: In January, isotherms deviate to the north over continents due to the differential heating between land and water. The Gulf Stream warms the North Atlantic, causing isotherms to bend toward the north, but the second statement is incorrectly phrased.
7. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for the weathering of rocks.
Statement II: Rainwater contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement III: Rainwater contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation: Rainwater contains carbon dioxide and oxygen, which contribute to the chemical weathering of rocks.
12. Consider the following description:
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
What is this type of climate?
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) China type climate
(c) Humid subtropical climate
(d) Marine West Coast climate
Answer: (a) Equatorial climate
Explanation: Equatorial climates have low temperature ranges and year-round precipitation, typically between 50 cm and 250 cm annually.
13. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with an increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: The Coriolis force increases with wind velocity and is maximum at the poles but not completely absent at the equator.
14. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: On June 21, the Tropic of Cancer experiences the longest day of the year with more than 12 hours of sunlight.
15. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years’ worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert a detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikori Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Answer: (d) Rio de la Plata Basin
Explanation: The Rio de la Plata Basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, significant for its carbon storage.
32. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement II: Compared to the dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Answer: (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Explanation: Giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions and thus have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2024
FROM NCERT:Solar Radiation Heat Balance and Temperature, Composition and Structure of Atmosphere, Interior of the Earth, Solar Radiation Heat Balance and Temperature, Geomorphic Processes, World Climate and Climate Change, Composition and Structure of Atmosphere, Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems, Biodiversity and Conservation, Interior of the Earth
2023
62. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles. This statement is incorrect. While the equator receives more insolation than the poles due to the angle of sunlight, the difference is not as high as ten times. The distribution is more gradual.
Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation. This statement is incorrect. Infrared radiation constitutes a portion of the total insolation, but it is not as high as two-thirds. Insolation includes a mix of visible light, ultraviolet, and infrared radiation.
Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere. This statement is correct. Water vapor in the lower atmosphere is highly effective at absorbing infrared radiation, which plays a significant role in the greenhouse effect and the warming of the atmosphere.
Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation. This statement is incorrect. Infrared waves are part of the electromagnetic spectrum but are not within the visible spectrum. The visible spectrum consists of the range of wavelengths that are visible to the human eye, whereas infrared waves have longer wavelengths.
63. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: While it might seem intuitive that the rich biodiversity of tropical rain forests would mean nutrient-rich soil, the truth is quite the opposite. The soil in tropical rain forests tends to be poor in nutrients. This is because the high temperature and moisture indeed cause rapid decomposition of organic matter, as stated in Statement-II. However, this rapid decomposition also means that nutrients are quickly released and then taken up by the dense vegetation or washed away by rain, leaving the soil itself relatively nutrient-poor.
64. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. This statement is incorrect. The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is actually greater during winter than in summer. In summer, both land and sea surfaces receive significant insolation, leading to relatively high temperatures for both, although land heats up more quickly. In winter, land cools down much faster than the ocean, creating a greater temperature contrast.
Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of the land surface. This statement is correct. The specific heat capacity of water is higher than that of land. This means water heats up and cools down more slowly than land, leading to more moderate temperature changes in oceans compared to land surfaces.
65. Consider the following statements:
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct regarding seismic waves recorded by a seismograph. P waves, or primary waves, are the fastest seismic waves and therefore reach the recording station first. They are longitudinal waves, meaning the particle motion is parallel to the direction of wave propagation. S waves, or secondary waves, arrive after P waves and are transverse waves, where the particle motion is perpendicular to the wave’s direction of travel. These properties are fundamental to seismology and help scientists understand the internal structure of the Earth.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2023
FROM NCERT: Interior of the Earth, Composition and Structure of Atmosphere, Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature, Water (Oceans), Movements of Ocean Water
2022
29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July
Answer: (a) First half of the month of June
Explanation: The longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere, known as the summer solstice, occurs when the North Pole is tilted closest to the sun. This event typically happens around June 20th or 21st each year. During the summer solstice, the northern hemisphere experiences the maximum number of daylight hours, marking the start of the astronomical summer. The specific date can vary slightly each year due to the Earth’s elliptical orbit and the leap year cycle, but it consistently falls within the first half of June, not the second half or into July. Therefore, the correct answer is the first half of the month of June.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2022
FROM NCERT: Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature.
2021
58. Consider the following statements:
1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) both 1 and 2
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because in the tropical zone, trade winds blow from east to west, piling up warm water in the western parts of the ocean basins, making them warmer than the eastern sections. This effect is particularly noted in the Pacific Ocean, where it significantly influences phenomena like the El Niño and La Niña. Statement 2 is correct because, in the temperate zone, westerlies facilitate the movement of warm ocean currents toward the east coasts of continents, which makes the eastern sections of the oceans in these latitudes warmer than the western sections. This is evident in the North Atlantic, where the Gulf Stream warms the eastern sections more than the western sections.
60. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result, the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely description of:
(a) coniferous forest
(b) dry deciduous forest
(c) mangrove forest
(d) tropical rainforest
Answer: (d) tropical rainforest
Explanation: The description provided corresponds to tropical rainforests, where the warm and moist conditions facilitate rapid decomposition of leaf litter. This biome is known for its incredible biodiversity, including various plants like lianas and epiphytes that climb up trees or grow on their upper branches to access sunlight above the dense canopy layer. The quick decomposition cycle prevents the accumulation of organic matter on the forest floor, contrasting with slower decomposition rates in cooler or drier biomes.
61. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 4 and 5
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 5
Answer: (c) 2,3 and 4
Explanation: The key factors limiting forest development in savannahs include fire, which can destroy saplings and favor grasses; grazing herbivores, which consume young trees and other vegetation; and seasonal rainfall, which affects the water availability crucial for tree growth. Together, these factors create a landscape dominated by grasses with few trees. While burrowing animals, termites, and soil properties can influence local vegetation, they are not the primary reasons for the lack of extensive forest cover in savannah environments.
62. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
1. The amount of water in rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the amount of groundwater far exceeds the water found in rivers and lakes. Groundwater constitutes one of the largest reservoirs of fresh water that is readily available to humans. Statement 2 is correct because the polar ice caps and glaciers hold the largest amount of Earth’s fresh water. The vast majority of Earth’s fresh water is locked in these ice reserves, surpassing the amount stored as groundwater.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2021
FROM NCERT: Water (Oceans), Movements of Ocean Water, Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems, World Climate and Climate Change
2020
93. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26 degrees C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January-March.
2. OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct because OMT, especially measurements taken early in the year, can provide valuable insights into the upcoming monsoon’s intensity. Scientists analyze OMT because it influences atmospheric circulation patterns that affect monsoon rainfall. A higher OMT can lead to a stronger monsoon, as it suggests more heat energy available to drive the monsoon circulation. Statement 1 is not universally correct because the depth of the 26 degrees C isotherm can vary significantly across different parts of the ocean and is not consistently at 129 meters depth in the specified location and time frame.
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 degrees C lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 only
Explanation: Statement 2 is correct as not all cyclones develop a well-defined eye; it is characteristic of strong tropical cyclones. The eye is a region of relatively low pressure and milder weather at the center of a cyclone. Statement 1 is incorrect because jet streams occur in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres, not just in the Northern hemisphere. They are fast-flowing, narrow air currents found in the atmospheres of some planets, including Earth. Statement 3 is also incorrect as the temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is actually warmer than its surroundings, not cooler. The eye is warmer because it is characterized by descending air that warms up through compression.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2020
FROM NCERT:Water (Oceans), Movements of Ocean Water, Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
2019
20. On 21st June the sun:
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
Explanation: On the 21st of June, which is the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole is tilted towards the sun. On this day, areas within the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for 24 hours, a phenomenon known as the Midnight Sun. The sun does not set and is visible at the horizon even at midnight local time. This phenomenon is specific to the Arctic Circle and not the Antarctic Circle, as the Antarctic is in darkness at this time. The sun does not shine vertically overhead at the equator or the Tropic of Capricorn on this date; instead, it shines directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer.
44. Why are dew drops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation
(c) the Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights
(d) clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level
Answer: (b) clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation
Explanation: Dew forms when surfaces cool during the night, losing heat to the sky; they cool by emitting infrared radiation. If the night is clear, this cooling can proceed quickly, lowering the surface temperature and allowing dew to form if the surface temperature drops below the dew point of the adjacent air. On a cloudy night, clouds act as an insulating blanket. They reflect the infrared radiation emitted by the ground back towards the surface, reducing the cooling effect. Because the surface does not cool as much as it would on a clear night, the formation of dew is much less likely or does not occur at all.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2019
FROM NCERT:Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature, Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems
2018
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few thousand years:
True. Earth’s magnetic field does reverse, but not as frequently as “every few thousand years.” These reversals are irregular but occur over hundreds of thousands to millions of years. During a reversal, the magnetic field diminishes, flips direction, and then strengthens again. The last reversal happened about 780,000 years ago.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide:
False. The early Earth’s atmosphere was very different from today’s. It likely contained water vapor, carbon dioxide (CO2), nitrogen, and small amounts of other gases. Oxygen levels were extremely low until photosynthetic organisms began to produce oxygen through photosynthesis. The 54% oxygen figure is incorrect; the atmosphere likely had more CO2 and virtually no oxygen initially.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth:
True. The appearance of photosynthetic organisms, like cyanobacteria, significantly changed the Earth’s atmosphere. Through photosynthesis, they converted CO2 and water into oxygen, gradually increasing the oxygen levels in the atmosphere. This process, called the Great Oxygenation Event, transformed the Earth’s atmosphere, making life as we know it possible.
2017
66. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. IOD Phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. IOD Phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is a climatic phenomenon that affects the weather patterns, including the monsoon, in the Indian Ocean region and surrounding countries. However, the first statement is incorrect as it mistakenly identifies the Eastern Pacific Ocean instead of the Eastern Indian Ocean. The IOD is actually characterized by the difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Indian Ocean. When there is a significant temperature difference, it can affect monsoon rainfall in India.
The second statement is correct. The IOD can indeed influence the impact of El Niño on the Indian monsoon. A positive IOD often helps mitigate the adverse effects of El Niño on the monsoon, potentially leading to normal or above-average rainfall, while a negative IOD can exacerbate El Niño’s negative impact, potentially resulting in reduced monsoon rainfall. Thus, while the IOD and El Niño are distinct phenomena, they can interact in ways that significantly affect monsoon outcomes in India.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2017
FROM NCERT:Water (Oceans), Movements of Ocean Water
2016
No Questions!
2015
5. In the South Atlantic and Southeastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason?
(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(b) Intertropical convergence zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions
Answer: b (Intertropical convergence zone seldom occurs)
Explanation: The primary reason cyclones do not originate in the South Atlantic and Southeastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes is (b) Intertropical convergence zone seldom occurs. The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a region near the equator where the northeast and southeast trade winds converge, creating an environment conducive to thunderstorm activity and potentially giving rise to cyclones. In the South Atlantic and Southeastern Pacific, the ITCZ is not consistently present or strong enough to facilitate the development of tropical cyclones. Additionally, the sea surface temperatures in these areas are often too low to provide the energy needed for cyclone formation.
14. What explains the eastward flow of the Equatorial counter-current?
(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis.
(b) Convergence of the two Equatorial currents.
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator.
Answer: b (Convergence of the two Equatorial currents)
Explanation: The eastward flow of the Equatorial counter-current is explained by (b) Convergence of the two Equatorial currents. In the equatorial regions, the trade winds drive the North and South Equatorial currents. When these currents converge near the equator, they create a build-up of water. The excess water is relieved by flowing eastward, forming the Equatorial counter-current. This flow is also influenced by the Earth’s rotation, but the primary reason for the eastward direction is the pressure gradient created by the accumulation of water pushed westward by the two Equatorial currents.
66. Consider the following statements:
1. The winds which blow between 30 degrees north and 60 degrees south latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the northwestern region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b (2only)
Explanation: The correct statement is (b) 2 only. The first statement is incorrect because westerlies blow predominantly between 30 degrees and 60 degrees latitudes in both hemispheres, not 30 degrees north to 60 degrees south. The second statement is accurate as the westerlies are indeed responsible for bringing moist air masses from the Mediterranean Sea to the northwestern parts of India, causing winter rains, particularly during the time known as the Western Disturbance.
70. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?
1. Gravitational force of the sun.
2. Gravitational force of the moon.
3. Centrifugal force of the earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: d (1,2 and 3)
Explanation: Tides are the result of (d) 1, 2, and 3. The gravitational forces of both the moon and the sun and the centrifugal force of the Earth work together to create the tidal movements. The moon’s gravitational pull has the most significant effect on the Earth’s tides, but the sun’s gravity also influences them, creating different tidal patterns such as spring and neap tides. The centrifugal force due to the Earth-moon system’s rotation also contributes to tidal forces.
80. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up dark clouds form then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.”
Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
(a) Savannah
(b) Equatorial
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterranean
Answer: b (Equatorial)
Explanation: The region described in the passage is (b) Equatorial. The equatorial climate is characterized by little variation in temperature throughout the year, with high temperatures and humidity. Rainfall occurs almost daily, typically in the afternoon, following the pattern of clear mornings and stormy afternoons, as described. The quick return to clear weather after rain is also characteristic of this region, unlike the prolonged rainy or dry seasons found in other climates.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2015
FROM NCERT: Atmospheric Circulation and Weather Systems, Water (Oceans), Movements of Ocean Water, World Climate and Climate Change
2014
13. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?
1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both continental drift and glacial cycles have significantly influenced the evolution of organisms. Continental drift, the movement of the Earth’s continents relative to each other, has altered habitats by changing the physical geography and climate over millions of years, affecting evolutionary pathways by isolating populations, creating land bridges, and promoting speciation. Glacial cycles, with their advances and retreats of ice sheets, have shaped ecosystems and habitats, forced migrations, created refugia where organisms could survive harsh conditions, and impacted the distribution and evolution of species. Together, these processes have been critical in shaping the biodiversity we observe today.
43. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of:
(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) Monsoon climate
Explanation: The seasonal reversal of winds is a defining characteristic of the monsoon climate, which is primarily observed in South Asia, including India. This climate features significant changes in wind direction between seasons, driving dramatic seasonal changes in weather. During the summer, winds flow from the ocean to the land, bringing heavy rainfall, whereas, in the winter, the winds reverse and flow from the land to the sea, resulting in dry conditions. In contrast, equatorial and Mediterranean climates do not exhibit this kind of pronounced wind reversal; the equatorial climate is characterized by relatively consistent weather patterns year-round, and the Mediterranean climate features wet winters and dry summers without a significant wind direction reversal.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Geography PRELIMS 2014
FROM NCERT:Distribution of Oceans and Continents, World Climate and Climate Change
Indian Geography
2024
No Questions!
2023
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation: The Jhelum River does indeed pass through Wular Lake, which is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia, located in Jammu and Kashmir, India. However, the Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake; it is linked to the lake through a channel but is primarily fed by excess water from the Budameru and Tammileru rivers and other smaller streams. The Gandak River is not associated with the formation of Kanwar Lake; instead, Kanwar Lake is formed by the meandering of rivers in the Bihar region but not specifically the Gandak.
3. Consider the following trees:
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Both Mahua (Madhuca indica) and Teak (Tectona grandis) are deciduous trees, shedding their leaves at the end of the dry season. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus), however, is an evergreen tree and does not shed all of its leaves annually in any specific season.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. India has more arable areas than China.
2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India compared to China.
3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only two
Explanation:
India has more arable areas than China. This statement is correct. India has a larger arable land area compared to China. According to FAO statistics, India has approximately 156.1 million hectares of arable land, whereas China has around 118.9 million hectares.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India compared to China. This statement is incorrect. China has a higher proportion of its arable land under irrigation compared to India. While India does have a significant amount of irrigated land, the percentage of irrigated land in China is higher relative to its total arable land.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. This statement is incorrect. The average agricultural productivity per hectare in China is generally higher than in India. China has made significant advances in agricultural productivity through modernization, technology, and efficient farming practices.
5. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch
Answer: (d) Rann of Kutch
Explanation: The Rann of Kutch, located in the Thar Desert, is a unique geographic feature that is considered one of the largest salt deserts in the world. Its formation is attributed to geological uplift and repeated changes in sea level, which have led to the creation of its extensive marshy land, especially noticeable during the monsoon season when it becomes submerged under shallow waters.
6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
(a) Aluminum
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium
Answer: (d) Titanium
Explanation: Ilmenite and rutile are minerals found in sands along various coastal regions and are important ores of titanium, which is used in producing strong, lightweight alloys for aerospace, military, industrial processes, and pigment production in the paint industry.
World Geo- 7. About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan
Answer: (c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
Explanation: The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is the world’s largest producer of cobalt, a critical metal used in the manufacture of batteries for electric vehicles and various electronic devices. The DRC contributes about three-fourths of the global cobalt production.
9. Consider the following statements:
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: None of the statements are correct. Amarkantak Hills are not located at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri (Western Ghats) ranges; they are actually considered the source of the Narmada and Son rivers. The Biligirirangan Hills are not part of the Satpura Range; they are situated in Karnataka at the confluence of the Western and Eastern Ghats. Seshachalam Hills are not the southernmost part of the Western Ghats; they are located in Andhra Pradesh and are separate from the Western Ghats.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2023
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment): Structure and Physiography, Drainage System, Climate, Natural Vegetation
2022
28. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1,2 and 4 only
Explanation:
1. True, Monazite is indeed a significant source of rare earth elements, which are crucial for various high-tech applications.
2. True, Monazite is known to contain thorium, which is a valuable resource for nuclear energy applications.
3. False, While monazite is found in coastal sands of India, it is not uniformly distributed along the entire coastline. Its occurrence is more notable in specific locations like the coasts of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha.
4. True, Due to its strategic importance and the thorium content, the processing and exportation of monazite in India are restricted to government bodies to ensure control and regulation, particularly given its potential applications in nuclear energy.
62. Consider the following states:
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura
How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing states?
(a) Only one state
(b) Only two states
(c) Only three states
(d) All four states
Answer: (b) Only two states
Explanation:
Among the listed states, Kerala and Tripura are well-known for their tea production. Andhra Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh do have some tea plantations, but they are not as prominent or well-known for tea production compared to the major tea-growing regions in India, like Assam, West Bengal, and the aforementioned Kerala and Tripura. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that two of these states are generally recognized for their tea production.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2022
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment): Structure and Physiography, Natural Vegetation
2021
63. Consider the following statements:
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 4 and 5
(b) 3,4 and 5
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 5
Answer: (b) 3,4 and 5
Explanation:
1. False, the Moringa (drumstick tree) is not a leguminous tree. It belongs to the family Moringaceae and is known for its fast-growing, drought-resistant properties, not for being leguminous.
2. False, while tamarind (Tamarindus indica) is widely used and cultivated in South Asia, it is not endemic to this region. It is believed to be native to tropical Africa.
3. True, in India, tamarind is often collected as minor forest produce, especially from wild or semi-wild trees.
4. True, India exports both tamarind and moringa seeds, utilizing their culinary, industrial, and agricultural value.
5. True, seeds of moringa and tamarind have potential uses in the production of biofuels due to their oil content, contributing to research in alternative energy sources.
64. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of
(a) brown forest soil
(b) fissure volcanic rock
(c) granite and schist
(d) shale and limestone
Answer: (b) fissure volcanic rock
Explanation: Black cotton soil, also known as Regur soil, is predominantly found in the Deccan Plateau region of India. This soil type is characterized by its high moisture retention capacity and is particularly suited for cotton cultivation. It is formed by the weathering of Deccan basalts, which are fissure volcanic rocks. The weathering process breaks down these rocks into fine particles, giving the soil its characteristic dark color and high fertility, especially in terms of its capacity to hold moisture.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2021
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment):Natural Vegetation, Structure and Physiography
2020
86. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:
1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.
2. Green gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last 3 decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1,2,3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
1. True, Black gram (Urad dal) can indeed be grown in both the kharif and rabi seasons in various parts of India, adapting to different climatic conditions and agronomic practices.
2. False, While green gram (Moong dal) is an important pulse crop in India, it does not constitute nearly half of the country’s pulse production. India’s pulse production is quite diversified across several pulse types including pigeon pea (tur), chickpea (chana), and lentils (masoor).
3. False, The statement is too generalized as the trends in pulse production can vary for different pulses and regions. In some areas, rabi pulse production might have increased or remained stable. The production trends for kharif and rabi pulses are subject to changes based on agricultural policies, climate conditions, and technological advances.
87. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Tea
Answer: (a) Cotton
Explanation: Cotton is known for its need for a subtropical climate, a significant number of frost-free days, and a moderate amount of rainfall, aligning with the conditions described. It thrives in light, well-drained soils that can retain moisture. Jute requires a more humid climate and is typically grown in areas with higher rainfall. Sugarcane and tea also have specific climatic requirements that do not match the description given as closely as cotton does.
89. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to sets with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
Explanation:
1. True, Using bud chip settings raised in nurseries and then transplanting them into the main field does save a significant amount of seed material and is a more efficient cultivation method.
2. False, Typically, setts with multiple buds have a better germination percentage compared to single-budded setts due to the increased chances of at least one bud successfully germinating and growing into a healthy plant.
3. False, Larger setts with more buds generally have a better survival rate under adverse weather conditions as they have more energy reserves and a higher likelihood of successful bud germination.
4. True, Sugarcane cultivation using tissue culture techniques is a modern agricultural practice that allows for the production of disease-free and high-quality planting material, enhancing productivity and sustainability.
92. Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
Answer: (d) 2,3 and 4 only
Explanation:
1. False, Bentonite is not classified as a major mineral in India; it is categorized under minor minerals.
2. True, Chromite is classified as a major mineral due to its industrial significance, especially in the production of stainless steel and other alloys.
3. True, Kyanite is an important refractory mineral and is classified as a major mineral because of its applications in the metallurgical industry.
4. True, Sillimanite is also classified as a major mineral in India, being used in the manufacture of high-temperature refractory materials, which are critical for industrial processes.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2020
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment):Natural Vegetation, Structure and Physiography
2019
No Questions!!!
2018
No Questions!!!
2017
No Questions!!!
2016
74. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?
1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
Answer: (d) 1,2,3
Explanation: Shale gas, an unconventional natural gas trapped within shale formations, has been identified in several basins across India. These include:
Cambay Basin: Located in Gujarat, the Cambay Basin is known for its significant potential for shale gas resources, contributing to India’s overall shale gas prospects.
Cauvery Basin: Situated in Tamil Nadu and extending into the Bay of Bengal, the Cauvery Basin has been identified as another region with considerable shale gas potential, especially in its deeper sedimentary layers.
Krishna-Godavari Basin: This basin, spread across Andhra Pradesh and extending into the Bay of Bengal, is one of the most explored and promising areas for shale gas in India. The potential of shale gas in the Krishna-Godavari Basin adds substantial prospects to India’s energy resources.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2016
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment): Structure and Physiography
2015
72. Consider the following states:
1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2,3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3
Explanation:
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests in India are primarily found in regions that receive high rainfall and are characterized by a hot and humid climate. These conditions are prevalent in the northeastern states and along the Western Ghats, as well as in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
True, Arunachal Pradesh, located in the northeastern part of India, experiences high rainfall and has the appropriate climatic conditions for Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests, making it one of the prime locations for these forests.
False, Himachal Pradesh, situated in the northern part of India, predominantly features temperate and alpine forests due to its higher altitude and cooler climate. It does not have the climate suitable for Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests.
True, Mizoram, another state in the northeast, also has the right climatic conditions for Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests. Like Arunachal Pradesh, it receives ample rainfall and has high humidity, which supports the growth of these forests.
78. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rainforest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands
Answer: (a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
Explanation:
Teak (Tectona grandis) is one of the most important timber trees in India, known for its durable and water-resistant wood. It is predominantly found in the Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests, which typically occur in areas with moderate to high rainfall. This forest type is characterized by a marked dry season and a wet season, facilitating the growth of deciduous trees like teak, which shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water. While teak can also be found in other forest types, it is most commonly associated with and dominates the tropical moist deciduous forests across India, particularly in states like Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2015
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment): Natural Vegetation
2014
23. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
Explanation:
1. True, Oak trees are a common sight in the Himalayan region, where they form a significant part of the forest cover at various altitudes.
2. True, Rhododendrons are iconic to the Himalayan region, known for their vibrant flowers and are found extensively across various Himalayan forests.
3. False, Sandalwood is native to the southern parts of India, particularly the peninsular region, and is not naturally found in the Himalayas.
26. Every year, a month-long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant siblings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following such communities/tribes?
(a) Bhutia and Lepcha
(b) Gond and Korku
(c) Irula and Toda
(d) Sahariya and Agariya
Answer: (a) Bhutia and Lepcha
Explanation: Bhutia and Lepcha communities reside in the Sikkim and Darjeeling regions and are known for their deep respect for nature, often engaging in ecological conservation activities including the planting of trees. These practices are integral to their cultural and ecological ethos.
39. With reference to the ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statements:
1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear Pashmina goats that yield fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2,3.
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only, given the traditional knowledge:
False, the Changpa community primarily resides in the Ladakh region, not Uttarakhand.
True, they are renowned for rearing Pashmina goats, which provide the fine wool used in high-quality shawls and garments.
True, Changpa are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in the region where they live.
69. Consider the following pairs:
Region – Well known for the production of
1. Kinnaur – Areca Nut
2. Mewat – Mango
3. Coromandel – Soya bean
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1,2,3
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation:
Incorrect, Kinnaur is renowned for its apples and not Areca Nut. It has a cold desert climate suitable for temperate and dry fruits rather than tropical crops.
Mewat is not specifically well-known for mango production. India has several other regions, notably in Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Bihar, which are famous for mango cultivation.
The Coromandel region is not specifically known for its soya bean production. It is more associated with rice, pulses, and cotton due to its climatic conditions and soil type.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Indian Geography PRELIMS 2014
FROM NCERT (Class 11, India Physical Environment): Natural Vegetation
Maps
2024
6. With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Ghaghara — Gomati — Gandak — Kosi
(b) Gomati — Ghaghara — Gandak — Kosi
(c) Ghaghara — Gomati — Kosi — Gandak
(d) Gomati — Ghaghara — Kosi — Gandak
Answer: (b) Gomati — Ghaghara — Gandak — Kosi
Explanation: The correct sequence of the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East is Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak, and Kosi.
8. Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: Germany and Norway have borders with the North Sea, while Finland and Russia do not.
9. Consider the following information:
Waterfall – Region – River
1. Dhuandhar – Malwa – Narmada
2. Hundru – Chota Nagpur – Subarnarekha
3. Gersoppa – Western Ghats – Netravati
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation: Only the second row is correctly matched. Dhuandhar is in the Narmada River, and Gersoppa Falls (Jog Falls) is on the Sharavathi River, not Netravati.
10. Consider the following information:
Region – Name of the mountain range – Type of mountain
1. Central Asia – Vosges – Fold mountain
2. Europe – Alps – Block mountain
3. North America – Appalachians – Fold mountain
4. South America – Andes – Fold mountain
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation: The correctly matched rows are Appalachians as Fold Mountains and Andes as Fold Mountains. Vosges is a block mountain, and Alps are fold mountains.
79. The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
(a) Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America
Explanation: The longest international border in the world is between Canada and the United States of America.
89. Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Red Sea receives very little precipitation, and no significant rivers flow into the Red Sea.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2024
Himalayan Rivers, Borders with the North Sea, Waterfalls and Rivers, Mountain Ranges and Types, International Borders, Red Sea and Climate.
2023
8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda
Answer: (a) Cameroon
Explanation: The Congo Basin is a region in Central Africa, extending across several countries, and is known for encompassing the second-largest rainforest in the world after the Amazon. Cameroon is part of the Congo Basin, as the country has regions, particularly its southeastern part, which are covered by this expansive rainforest. This area receives high rainfall and is characterized by a high level of biodiversity, which is typical of the Congo Basin ecosystem. On the other hand, Nigeria, South Sudan, and Uganda are not considered parts of the Congo Basin. While they are located in proximity to the basin or have their own significant river systems and forests, they do not fall within the hydrological or ecological boundaries that define the Congo Basin.
61. Consider the following countries:
1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
3. Hungary
4. Latvia
5. Lithuania
6. Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five
Answer: (a) Only two
Explanation: Ukraine shares its land borders with five countries, but among the options listed, only Hungary and Romania have direct land borders with Ukraine. Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Latvia, and Lithuania do not share a land border with Ukraine; they are in Eastern Europe but are separated from Ukraine by other countries. Specifically, Hungary is to the west of Ukraine, and Romania is to the southwest, both sharing significant border lengths with Ukraine, thereby directly impacting geopolitical and regional interactions.
97. Consider the following pairs:
Area of conflict mentioned in news: Country where it is located
1. Donbas: Syria
2. Kachin: Ethiopia
3. Tigray: North Yemen
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation: None of the pairs listed are correctly matched in terms of the geographic location of the conflict areas and their respective countries. Donbas is a region in eastern Ukraine known for its ongoing conflict, not in Syria. Kachin is a state in northern Myanmar (Burma), not Ethiopia, where it has been the site of significant ethnic and political conflict. Tigray is a region in northern Ethiopia, not North Yemen, and has been in the news due to conflict and humanitarian concerns. The errors in pairing show a mix-up of geographic locations and current affairs, emphasizing the need to understand regional conflicts within their accurate national contexts.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2023
World Geography, Regional Geography of Africa, European Political Geography, Current World Affairs, Geography of Conflict Zones
2022
23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
Answer: (b) Lake Faguibine
Explanation: Lake Faguibine is located in Mali, West Africa, and has experienced significant drying over the years, primarily due to changes in climate, increased desertification, and human activities that have altered the natural flow of water. Unlike Lake Victoria and Lake Volta, which are substantial and remain filled with water, Lake Faguibine has faced severe ecological changes, transforming into a desert-like environment in many parts.
24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Manjira
(c) Pennar
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer: (c) Pennar
Explanation: The Gandikota canyon, often referred to as the ‘Grand Canyon of India,’ is located in Andhra Pradesh and was formed by the river Pennar cutting through the Erramala hills. This geological feature is renowned for its spectacular gorge carved by the river, distinguishing it from the landscapes formed by the other rivers listed.
25. Consider the following pairs:
Peak- Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa- Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi- Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: Nanda Devi is correctly associated with the Kumaon Himalayas. Namcha Barwa is not in the Garhwal Himalayas but is located at the easternmost edge of the Himalayas in Tibet. Nokrek is not part of the Sikkim Himalayas but is located in Meghalaya.
26. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas
Answer: (a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
Explanation: The Levant refers to the broad geographic region that encompasses countries along the eastern Mediterranean shores, including Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, and parts of Turkey and Jordan. It does not correspond to North African shores, the Persian Gulf, or the broader Mediterranean coastline.
27. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Uzbekistan
5. Turkmenistan
Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
Explanation: Among the listed countries, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Turkmenistan share borders with Afghanistan. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan do not border Afghanistan.
30. Consider the following pairs:
Wetland- Lake Location
1. Hokera Wetland – Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Explanation: Renuka Wetland is correctly located in Himachal Pradesh, and Rudrasagar Lake is accurately placed in Tripura. Hokera Wetland is in Jammu & Kashmir, not Punjab, and Sasthamkotta Lake is in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.
70. Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs – States
1. Ghataprabha: Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar: Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar: Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon: Chhattisgarh
How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (c) Only three pairs
Explanation: Gandhi Sagar is correctly located in Madhya Pradesh. However, Ghataprabha is in Karnataka, not Telangana; Indira Sagar is in Madhya Pradesh, not Andhra Pradesh; and Maithon is in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh.
88. Consider the following pairs:
Region often mentioned in the news- Country
1. Anatolia: Turkey
2. Amhara: Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado: Spain
4. Catalonia: Italy
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only two pairs
Explanation: Anatolia is a region in Turkey, and Amhara is in Ethiopia. Cabo Delgado is not in Spain but in Mozambique, and Catalonia is an autonomous community in Spain, not Italy.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2022
World Geography, Regional Geography of Africa, European Political Geography, Current World Affairs, Geography of Conflict Zones
2021
49. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
(c) Pandu-lena Cave shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.
Answer: (a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
Explanation: Ajanta Caves, a UNESCO World Heritage site renowned for its ancient Buddhist rock-cut cave monuments, are indeed located in the gorge of the Waghora river in Maharashtra, India. These caves feature exquisite paintings and sculptures that are considered masterpieces of Buddhist religious art. The other options list incorrect associations of river gorges with historic and religious sites.
53. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of the which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?
(a) Chenab
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi
(d) Sutlej
Answer: (d) Sutlej
Explanation: Among the rivers listed, the Sutlej joins the Indus directly. The Chenab, Jhelum, and Ravi are part of the Indus river system where they eventually converge with each other before meeting the Indus. Specifically, the Jhelum and Chenab merge, and then the Ravi joins the Chenab before meeting the Sutlej, which later meets the Indus. The Sutlej, after its course through Indian and Pakistani territory, joins the Indus in Pakistan.
54. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are the names of
(a) Glaciers
(b) Mangrove areas
(c) Ramsar sites
(d) Saline lakes
Answer: (d) Saline lakes
Explanation: Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu refer to saline lakes located in India. These lakes are known for their high salt concentration, which is often a result of the evaporation that exceeds water inflow, leaving behind salts and minerals. Such environments are typically found in arid and semi-arid regions where evaporation rates are high.
55. Consider the following Rivers:
1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara
Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 4
Explanation: The Nagavali and Vamsadhara rivers originate from the Eastern Ghats. The Nagavali river rises near the Lakhbahal in the Eastern Ghats of Odisha, and the Vamsadhara river originates in the Eastern Ghats in Odisha as well. These rivers flow through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and Koel rivers from the Chotanagpur plateau, and not directly originating from the Eastern Ghats. Subarnarekha originates from the Chotanagpur plateau in Jharkhand, again not the Eastern Ghats.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2021
Indian River Systems, Physical Geography of India, Indian Cultural and Historical Sites, Hydrography of India
2020
68. Consider the following pairs:
Rivers- Flows into
1. Mekong – Andaman Sea
2. Thames – Irish Sea
3. Volga – Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi – Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only
Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Mekong River flows into the South China Sea, not the Andaman Sea.
Thames River flows into the North Sea, not the Irish Sea.
Volga River correctly flows into the Caspian Sea, being one of the major rivers in Russia.
Zambezi River flows into the Indian Ocean, specifically at the Mozambique channel.
73. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?
1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Nagarhole National Park is located in the state of Karnataka and is indeed part of the Cauvery river basin.
Papikonda National Park is located along the Godavari River and is not in the Cauvery river basin.
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is in Tamil Nadu and is part of the Cauvery river basin’s broader catchment area.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Kerala and also shares its watershed with the Cauvery basin.
96. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
(a) East of Aksai Chin
(b) East of Leh
(c) North of Gilgit
(d) North of Nubra Valley
Answer: (d) North of Nubra Valley
Explanation: The Siachen Glacier, located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, is indeed north of the Nubra Valley in the Ladakh region of India. This glacier is near the Line of Control between India and Pakistan.
97. With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
Famous Place – Present State
1. Bhilsa – Madhya Pradesh
2. Dwarasamudra – Maharashtra
3. Girinagar – Gujarat
4. Shaneshwara – Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Bhilsa, now known as Vidisha, is indeed in Madhya Pradesh.
Dwarasamudra, the historical name for Halebidu, is actually in Karnataka, not Maharashtra.
Girinagar, associated with Junagadh, is in Gujarat.
Shaneshwara does not correspond with Uttar Pradesh; it seems there is confusion with the naming here, as no renowned historical place of Shaneshwara is directly associated with Uttar Pradesh.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2020
World River Systems, Indian River Basins, Protected Areas and National Parks of India, Glacier Geography, Historical and Cultural Geography of India.
2019
23. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place – River
1. Pandharpur – Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli – Cauvery
3. Hampi – Malaprabha
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Pandharpur is indeed located on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River, and Tiruchirappalli is situated on the Cauvery River. However, Hampi is not on the Malaprabha River; it is near the Tungabhadra River. Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.
36. Consider the following pairs:
Sea – Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea – Albania
2. Black Sea – Croatia
3. Caspian Sea – Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea – Morocco
5. Red Sea – Syria
(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
Answer: (b) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation: Albania borders the Adriatic Sea, Kazakhstan is on the Caspian Sea, and Morocco has a coast along the Mediterranean Sea. Croatia borders the Adriatic Sea, not the Black Sea, and Syria does not border the Red Sea; it has a coastline on the Mediterranean Sea. Therefore, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 3, and 4.
38. Consider the following pairs:
Glacier – River
1. Bandarpunch – Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri – Chenab
3. Milam – Mandakini
4. Siachen – Nubra
5. Zemu – Manas
(a) 1,2, and 4
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2 and 5
(d) 3 and 5
Answer: (a) 1, 2, and 4
Explanation: Bandarpunch Glacier is a source for the Yamuna, Bara Shigri feeds the Chenab, and the Siachen Glacier is linked with the Nubra River. Milam Glacier is not related to the Mandakini but the Goriganga, and Zemu Glacier is associated with the Teesta River, not Manas. Thus, the correctly matched pairs are 1, 2, and 4.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2019
Rivers and Cities of India, World Seas and Bordering Countries, Asian Geography, Glaciers and River Systems
2018
13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: The Aral Sea, located between Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan, is a prominent example of a large lake that has dramatically shrunk and dried up due to human activities, particularly because of the diversion of the rivers that fed it for agricultural irrigation purposes. This has resulted in a major ecological disaster, with significant impacts on the local climate, wildlife, and human populations due to the loss of the fishing industry and the arising of health problems from the exposed lakebed.
On the other hand, the Black Sea and Lake Baikal have not experienced the same scale of shrinkage or drying. While they may face environmental challenges and pollution, they have not diminished to the extent of the Aral Sea or become deserts due to direct human water management practices. Hence, the correct answer is (a) 1 only, indicating that only the Aral Sea has shrunk immensely/dried up recently due to human activities.
29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Answer: (c) Nagpur
Explanation: Longitude is the geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth’s surface. Among the cities listed, Nagpur is closest in longitude to Delhi. Both cities are located more centrally in India compared to Bengaluru and Hyderabad, which are farther south, and Pune, which is more to the west. Therefore, in terms of longitudinal proximity to Delhi, Nagpur is the closest.
37. Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in the news – Country
1. Aleppo – Syria
2. Kirkuk – Yemen
3. Mosul – Palestine
4. Mazar-i-Sharif – Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1 and 4
Explanation:
Aleppo is correctly associated with Syria, as it is one of the country’s key cities and has been significantly affected during the Syrian conflict.
Kirkuk is not in Yemen; it is in Iraq, known for its diverse population and oil-rich region.
Mosul is also not in Palestine; it is in Iraq and has been a focal point of various conflicts, including fights against ISIS.
Mazar-i-Sharif is indeed in Afghanistan, known for its historical and cultural significance.
85. Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991, and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
True, the Barren Island volcano is indeed an active volcano located in the Andaman Sea, part of Indian territory.
False, Barren Island is not near Great Nicobar; it is situated east of the Andaman Islands.
False, Barren Island volcano has erupted several times after 1991, including significant eruptions in the 2000s and as recently as 2017, making it an active volcano.
90. Consider the following pairs:
Regions sometimes mentioned in the news – Country
1. Catalonia – Spain
2. Crimea – Hungary
3. Mindanao – Philippines
4. Oromia – Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Catalonia is correctly associated with Spain, as it is a significant autonomous community within the country, known for its distinct identity and independence movement.
Crimea is associated with Ukraine/Russia, not Hungary. It has been a focal point of international attention due to its annexation by Russia from Ukraine in 2014.
Mindanao is correctly linked with the Philippines, being one of the country’s major islands known for its cultural diversity and ongoing peace and conflict issues.
Oromia is a region in Ethiopia, not Nigeria, and is the largest and most populous region in the country, often in the news for various political and social issues.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2018
Environmental Geography, World Physical Geography, Indian Geography, International Political Geography
2017
30. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The source of the river Teesta is not the same as that of the Brahmaputra. The Teesta River originates from the Pauhunri glacier, whereas the Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi glacier in Tibet.
The statement about River Rangeet is correct. It does originate in Sikkim and is an important tributary of the Teesta River.
The Teesta River does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh. Instead, it merges with the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh, which then flows into the Bay of Bengal.
49. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (b) 7
Explanation: Traveling from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) by the shortest route typically involves passing through the following states: Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, making a total of seven states.
54. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
This statement is incorrect. The Himalayas extend across several Indian states beyond just five, including Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of West Bengal.
This statement is incorrect as the Western Ghats stretch across six states – Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Therefore, saying they are spread over five states only is incorrect.
Pulicat Lake is correctly noted as being spread over two states, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
58. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two states only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:
The first statement is incorrect. The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) extends across several states in the northern part of India, not limited to five. These include Jammu & Kashmir (including Ladakh), Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of Assam and West Bengal, totaling ten political entities if we consider J&K and Ladakh separately.
The second statement is also incorrect. The Western Ghats, one of the eight “hottest hotspots” of biological diversity in the world, extend over six states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Therefore, stating that they spread over only five states is wrong.
The third statement is correct. Pulicat Lake, the second largest brackish-water lake or lagoon in India, is spread across two states: Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. It lies predominantly in the state of Andhra Pradesh but extends south into Tamil Nadu near the Coromandel Coast. Hence, the correct answer is that only statement 3 is correct, which corresponds to option (b).
98. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (a) Sumatra
Explanation: Sumatra, an Indonesian island, is geographically the closest to Great Nicobar, the southernmost of the Nicobar Islands, which are part of Indian territory. The proximity is such that at their closest point, the distance between Sumatra and Great Nicobar is only about 150 kilometers. In contrast, Borneo and Java are also part of Indonesia but are located farther east compared to Sumatra. Sri Lanka lies to the west of the Nicobar Islands and is considerably farther away than Sumatra. Thus, among the given options, Sumatra is the nearest to Great Nicobar Island.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2017
Indian Geography, Physical Geography of India, Indian River Systems, State and Union Territory Geography of India, Environmental Geography, World Geography
2016
28. Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?
1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All three rivers mentioned – Dibang, Kameng, and Lohit – are significant tributaries of the Brahmaputra River. They originate in the eastern Himalayas and join the Brahmaputra as it flows through the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh and later into Assam. These tributaries contribute significantly to the water volume of the Brahmaputra River system, which is one of the major river systems in India, supporting a vast ecosystem and numerous human communities along its course.
94. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place – Region
1. Bodhgaya – Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho – Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi – Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik) – Malwa
5. Tirupati – Rayalaseema
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 2,3,4 and 5
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1,3,4 and 5
Answer: (c) 2 and 5 only
Explanation:
Bodhgaya, famous for its Buddhist pilgrimage sites, is in Bihar, not in Baghelkhand region.
Khajuraho, known for its medieval temples with intricate sculptures, is correctly located in the Bundelkhand region of Madhya Pradesh.
Shirdi, associated with Sai Baba, is in Maharashtra, but it is not part of the Vidarbha region; it is actually in the Ahmednagar District.
Nasik (Nashik), known for its religious significance and vineyards, is in Maharashtra but not in Malwa; Malwa is a region in western Madhya Pradesh, whereas Nashik is in northwestern Maharashtra.
Tirupati, famous for the Venkateswara Temple, is correctly situated in the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2016
Indian River Systems, Regional Geography of India, Cultural and Historical Geography of India.
2015
6. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Answer: (d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh, located in the northeastern part of India, is the easternmost state, while Gujarat, situated on the western edge of the country, is the westernmost state. These locations are geographically the extremities of India in the east-west direction.
15. Consider the following pairs:
Place of Pilgrimage – Location
1. Srisailam – Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar – Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar – Mahadeo Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: Srisailam is indeed located in the Nallamala Hills. Omkareshwar is not in the Satmala Hills but on an island in the Narmada River, Madhya Pradesh. Pushkar is not associated with the Mahadeo Hills; it is located near the Aravalli Range in Rajasthan. Therefore, only the pair (1. Srisailam – Nallamala Hills) is correctly matched.
33. The area known as Golan Heights sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to
(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Central Africa
Answer: (b) Middle East
Explanation: The Golan Heights is a region in the Middle East located on the border between Israel and Syria. It has been a disputed territory and of significant strategic importance, making it often mentioned in the context of Middle Eastern geopolitical issues.
36. Consider the following rivers:
1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The Indravati and Pranahita rivers are tributaries of the Godavari. The Vamsadhara River, while it flows close to the Godavari basin, does not join the Godavari but directly flows into the Bay of Bengal. Similarly, the Pennar is an entirely separate river system that flows into the Bay of Bengal and is not a tributary of the Godavari.
77. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel
Answer: (b) Jordan
Explanation: Jordan is landlocked with respect to the Mediterranean Sea and has no coastline on this sea. It is bordered by countries like Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Israel, and a small coastline on the Red Sea at its southern extremity, distinguishing it from the other listed nations that have Mediterranean coastlines.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2015
Indian Geography, World Geography, Asian Geography, River Systems, Pilgrimage Sites in India, Geopolitical Conflicts
2014
3. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java
Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar
Explanation: The Ten Degree Channel is a maritime stretch that lies between the Andaman Islands and the Nicobar Islands, two principal island groups of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Union Territory of India. The channel is named after the latitude line (10 degrees north of the Equator) that approximately aligns with it, serving as a boundary between these two groups of islands.
36. Consider the following pairs:
Region often in news – Country
1. Chechnya: Russian Federation
2. Darfur: Mali
3. Swat Valley: Iraq
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Chechnya is correctly matched with the Russian Federation. It is a federal subject of Russia known for its history of conflict and a significant level of autonomy.
Darfur is incorrectly paired with Mali. Darfur is a region in Sudan known for its severe conflict and humanitarian issues.
Swat Valley is incorrectly matched with Iraq. Swat Valley is actually located in Pakistan and has been known for its scenic beauty as well as being a focal point in various military operations.
45. Consider the following rivers:
1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri
Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Barak River originates in the hills of Manipur, not Arunachal Pradesh, and flows through Nagaland and Assam into Bangladesh.
Lohit River is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in eastern Tibet and flowing through Arunachal Pradesh, thus it is correctly matched.
Subansiri, another significant tributary of the Brahmaputra, also flows through Arunachal Pradesh, making it correctly matched as well.
46. Consider the following pairs:
Wetlands – Confluence of rivers
1. Harike Wetlands – Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park – Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake – Confluence of Musi and Krishna
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Harike Wetlands are correctly matched with the confluence of the Beas and Satluj rivers. It is one of the largest wetlands in northern India, located in the Punjab state and is an important bird sanctuary.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park is not at the confluence of the Banas and Chambal rivers. It is located in Rajasthan and is famous as a bird sanctuary but does not lie at the confluence of these two rivers.
Kolleru Lake is not at the confluence of the Musi and Krishna rivers. It is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in Andhra Pradesh but is not formed by the confluence of Musi and Krishna. It receives water from several seasonal rivulets and streams.
48. Consider these pairs:
1. Cardamom Hills – Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills – Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills – Central India
4. Mikir Hills – North-East India
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 3 and 4
Explanation:
Cardamom Hills are located in the Western Ghats, not near the Coromandel Coast.
Kaimur Hills are not along the Konkan Coast but are situated in the eastern part of Central India.
Mahadeo Hills are indeed in Central India, known for their rich biodiversity and significant cultural heritage.
Mikir Hills (now Karbi Hills) are located in the North-East India, part of the state of Assam and are known for their unique flora and fauna.
51. Turkey is located between
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
Answer: (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Explanation: Turkey is strategically located at the crossroads of Europe and Asia, and it has coastlines along both the Black Sea to the north and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. It does not lie between the Caspian Sea, Gulf of Suez, or Gulf of Aqaba and the Dead Sea, as these are not adjacent to Turkey.
52. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?
1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-1-2
Answer: (c) 3-4-1-2
Explanation: In Southeast Asia, moving from south to north, the sequence begins with Jakarta (Indonesia) which is the southernmost among the listed, followed by Singapore, then north to Bangkok (Thailand), and finally to Hanoi (Vietnam). This order reflects the correct geographical placement of these cities from the southernmost point to the northernmost among the options provided.
77. Consider the following pairs:
National Highway -Cities connected by them
1. NH4 – Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH6 – Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH15 – Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None of them are correct
Answer: (d) None of them are correct
Explanation:
NH4 does not connect Chennai and Hyderabad; it primarily connects Mumbai and Chennai.
NH6 does connect cities across central India but it is better known for connecting cities like Hajira to Kolkata, not Mumbai directly to Kolkata as primary endpoints.
NH15 primarily associates with connecting the cities in the western part of India, but it’s known for its path through Rajasthan and Gujarat, not specifically connecting Ahmedabad and Jodhpur as primary endpoints.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for Maps PRELIMS 2014
Geography of India, World Geography, Physical Geography, Political Geography, Geography of River Systems, Maritime Geography