Polity- Pre PYQ[Set-A] Explanation
2024
66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 368 of the Constitution of India allows the Parliament to amend the Constitution by addition, variation, or repeal of any provision.
68. Which of the following statements is correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions a special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Article 109 of the Constitution of India provides the procedure for Money Bills. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments but cannot reject the Bill. However, the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept the amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha.
70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: The North Eastern Council (NEC) includes the Governors and Chief Ministers of the constituent states, three members nominated by the President of India, and the Home Minister of India.
71. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer: (d) Four
Explanation: The Government of India has constituted four Delimitation Commissions till December 2023.
72. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 included Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.
74. Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A, emergency provisions in Part XVIII, and provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution in Part XX.
75. Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Explanation: Inter-State quarantine is listed as a Union subject under the Union List in the Constitution of India.
76. Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21
Answer: (d) Article 21
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India has placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty.
77. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters, but does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs.
80. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answers using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Initially, the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha was an ad-hoc Committee. It can take up matters which are sub-judice. Complaints about unethical conduct can be made by anyone, not just members of the Lok Sabha.
83. A writ of prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
Explanation: A writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to a lower court to prevent it from continuing proceedings in a case that falls outside its jurisdiction.
84. Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: It is the President of India who recognizes and declares any community as a Scheduled Tribe, not the Governor of the State. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one State may not be recognized as such in another State.
85. With reference to the Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation: The Union Finance Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament on his/her own behalf, not on behalf of the Prime Minister. No demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
93. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration:
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation: While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside. However, the Speaker may speak and vote in the first instance.
94. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 2
Explanation: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. However, a bill for which the President has notified his/her intention to summon a joint sitting does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
95. Concerning the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
Explanation: The prorogation of a House by the President of India is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to proroguing the House while in session. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2024
Indian Constitution, Parliamentary System, Legislative Procedures, Constitutional Bodies, Government Commissions, Official Languages, Fundamental Rights, Defence Administration, Ethics in Governance, Judicial Review, Scheduled Tribes, Financial Procedures, Parliamentary Roles and Functions.
2023
31. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice
Explanation:
In essence, ‘Due Process of Law’ means (a) the principle of natural justice. This concept ensures that legal proceedings are conducted fairly and that individuals are given an opportunity to be heard, ensuring justice is administered equitably.
32. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Explanation:
Both statements are correct, and Statement-II indeed provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. The Prisons Act of 1894 places the responsibility of prisons in the hands of state governments (formerly provincial governments), which manage prisons according to their rules and regulations.
33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality, and social security.
Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
Explanation:
The chief purpose of a country’s Constitution is to define the structure, functions, and powers of government and its various branches, and to delineate the rights and duties of citizens. It sets limits on government powers, thereby preventing arbitrary rule and protecting citizens’ rights.
34. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment
Answer: X – dropped
Explanation:
1st Amendment (1951): This amendment addressed issues related to freedom of speech and expression, enabling the state to impose reasonable restrictions, and adding Articles 31A and 31B, which protected certain laws from judicial review.
42nd Amendment (1976): Known as the “Mini-Constitution,” it made extensive changes, including weakening the power of the judiciary and enhancing the power of the Parliament, specifically in response to judicial decisions that struck down laws as violative of Fundamental Rights.
44th Amendment (1978): This amendment was enacted to undo some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment, particularly those that affected civil liberties and Fundamental Rights, restoring a balance of power.
86th Amendment (2002): This amendment dealt with the right to education, making it a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14.
The most likely correct answer would be the 42nd Amendment because it was specifically enacted to curb the judiciary’s power in striking down laws that were found to infringe on Fundamental Rights. This was in direct response to judgments like Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, which asserted the supremacy of the Constitution and the power of judicial review.
However, the question might have been dropped due to ambiguity or the evolving understanding of these amendments’ impacts on Fundamental Rights. It could also be because of controversies or differing opinions on which amendment most significantly responded to judicial interpretations.
Q35. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
Among the listed organizations, only the National Commission for Backward Classes has been given the status of a constitutional body following the 102nd Amendment Act of the Constitution of India. The other bodies, while statutory and significant, do not enjoy constitutional status.
36. Consider the following statements:
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d) None
Explanation:
All statements are incorrect. The acts performed by the President before the declaration of election as void remain valid. The Presidential elections cannot be postponed due to dissolved Legislative Assemblies as they involve elected MPs and MLAs from existing assemblies. The Constitution does not prescribe a specific time limit for the President to declare his/her assent to a Bill.
37. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to a Finance Bill, but it is up to the Lok Sabha to accept or reject them. For Money Bills, the Rajya Sabha can make recommendations, but the Lok Sabha is not obliged to accept them. Statement 3 is partially correct; there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a Money Bill. However, for a Finance Bill that is not a Money Bill, the usual legislative process applies, but it doesn’t explicitly mention a joint sitting as a resolution mechanism in the Constitution.
39. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The notification of an area as a Scheduled Area within a state does indeed occur through a Presidential Order, ensuring that these regions receive special attention due to their unique socio-economic conditions, predominantly inhabited by tribal populations. The administrative unit scope for Scheduled Areas can range from districts to clusters of villages, reflecting the decentralized approach towards governance in these areas. However, the requirement for Chief Ministers to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas is not explicitly mandated, making statement 3 incorrect.
40. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct as the Supreme Court has indeed interpreted that while Article 16(4) allows for reservations, such policies should also consider Article 335, which advises on the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to maintain efficiency in administration. However, Statement-II is incorrect because Article 335 does not explicitly define “efficiency of administration” but rather makes a reference to considering the claims of SCs and STs in making appointments consistent with maintaining efficiency.
77. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b) Only two
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as the Constitution of India does indeed mandate the Central Government to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbances under Article 355. Statement 2 is incorrect because the right to legal counsel is guaranteed, even for those in preventive detention, under Article 22 of the Constitution. Statement 3 is correct regarding the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002; confessions made to police officers were admissible but not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.
80. Consider the following statements in respect of the election to the President of India:
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Answer: (a) Only one
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as nominated members of both the Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies are not eligible to participate in the Electoral College for the Presidential election. Statement 2 is generally true, reflecting the proportional representation scheme based on the population of each state, thus making the statement somewhat correct in the broader context, but it’s the total value that’s distributed based on the population, not the individual value of each MLA’s vote increasing with the number of seats. Statements 3 and 4 require specific calculations based on the population and the number of elected members to ascertain, but the principle that determines the value of each MLA’s vote is based on the population of the state and the total number of elected members, not directly the conditions described.
85. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer:(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct as Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, is celebrated on 26th November each year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India and to honor and promote the constitutional values among the citizens. However, Statement-II is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution on 26th November 1949, but the Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, was established much earlier, in August 1947, to prepare a draft constitution for India, not on the date the constitution was adopted.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2023
Fundamental Rights, Amendment of the Constitution, Constitutional Bodies, Emergency Provisions, Union Territories and Special Areas, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties, State Government, Centre-State Relations, Judiciary, Union Executive, Local Government
2022
11. Consider the following statements:
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, The contempt of courts act, 1971 was passed.
2. The constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the high courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The constitution of India defines civil contempt and criminal contempt.
4. In India, the parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on contempt of court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 3 only
Answers: (b) 1,2 and 4
Explanation:
The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, was indeed enacted following the recommendations of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, confirming Statement 1. The Constitution of India, particularly under Articles 129 and 215, empowers the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to punish for their contempt, making Statement 2 correct. While the Constitution empowers the courts, it does not define civil and criminal contempt—this is done by the Contempt of Courts Act itself, making Statement 3 incorrect. Statement 4 is accurate as the Parliament has the authority to legislate on contempt of court, outlined under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. The Bar Council has the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers: (b) 2 only
Explanaton:
Government law officers, legal firms, corporate lawyers, and patent attorneys can all be recognised as advocates provided they are enrolled with a State Bar Council under the Advocates Act, 1961, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as the Bar Council of India has the authority to set standards for legal education and grants recognition to law colleges.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. A bill amending the constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a constitution amendment bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A constitution amendment bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answers: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
A bill amending the Constitution does not require a prior recommendation of the President to be introduced in Parliament, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as the President must give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill—it’s not subject to the President’s veto. Statement 3 is also correct, as Article 368 specifies that a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by a special majority in both Houses, with no provision for a joint sitting in case of deadlock.
14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies ministers into 4 ranks viz. Cabinet minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)1 only
(b)2 only
(c)Both 1 and 2
(d)Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
While the Indian Constitution does outline the roles within the Council of Ministers, it doesn’t explicitly classify ministers into the four mentioned ranks; this classification is more a matter of convention and practice, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as per the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003, which limits the total number of ministers in the Union Government to 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha.
15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
1. To rectify the declaration of emergency
2. To pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the president of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha include the ability to pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers (Statement 2). The rectification of the declaration of emergency and the impeachment of the President involve processes that require participation or initiation by both Houses of Parliament, making Statements 1 and 3 not exclusive to the Lok Sabha.
16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within 6 months of being appointed to the house.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule of the Constitution) does not allow a nominated member to join a political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which they take their seat in the House, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as the law does not specify a time limit for the presiding officer to decide cases of defection, which has been a point of criticism.
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
While the Attorney General of India has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament and their joint sittings, this privilege is not extended to the Solicitor General, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is also incorrect as the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President and not necessarily resigns when the government resigns; their tenure is not directly tied to the government’s tenure.
18. With reference to the writs issued by the courts in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a company even though it may be a government company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the court to obtain the Writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1,2 and 3 only
Explanation:
The writ of Mandamus can be issued to compel the performance of public duties by authorities or organizations performing public functions, but not against private organizations unless they are entrusted with a public duty, nor against government companies if they are not performing public duties. The writ of Quo Warranto allows any public-minded person to challenge the legality of a person’s claim to a public office, ensuring that only legally entitled individuals hold public positions. Hence, all three statements regarding these writs are correct.
20. With reference to deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. As per the rules of procedure and conduct of business in Lok Sabha, the election of deputy speaker shall be held on such date as the speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as deputy speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The deputy speaker has the same power as of the speaker when presiding over the sitting of the house and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of deputy speaker is that the motion is moved by the speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1,2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct, as it is within the Speaker’s prerogative to fix the date for the election of the Deputy Speaker. Statement 3 is also accurate because the Deputy Speaker assumes all the powers of the Speaker when presiding over a session of the Lok Sabha, including making rulings that cannot be appealed against. Statement 2 is incorrect as there’s no mandatory provision in the Constitution or the Lok Sabha’s rules requiring the Deputy Speaker to be elected from either the ruling party or the principal opposition party. Statement 4 is inaccurate; while parliamentary convention may encourage broad support for the Deputy Speaker’s election, there’s no fixed rule that the motion must be moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister.
73. If a particular area is brought under the 5th schedule of the constitution of India,which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
b) this would create a local self governing body in that area.
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The state having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer : (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
Explanation:
The primary intent of including an area under the 5th Schedule of the Constitution is to protect the interests of tribal populations living in those areas. It empowers the President of India to declare an area as a Scheduled Area, and such declaration comes with certain protections for the tribal people, including restrictions on the transfer of land from tribal to non-tribal people to prevent exploitation and preserve tribal autonomy. This provision is aimed at safeguarding the rights and interests of the indigenous tribal communities.
75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the environment (protection) act, 1986?
a) Central water Commission
b) central groundwater board
c) central groundwater authority
d) national water development agency
Answer: (c) Central Groundwater Authority
Explanation:
The Central Groundwater Authority (CGWA) was established by the Government of India under the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 to regulate and control the management and development of groundwater resources in the country. Its creation reflects the need for a regulatory framework to prevent overexploitation and to ensure the sustainable use of groundwater resources, acknowledging the critical importance of groundwater for various uses, including drinking, irrigation, and industrial activities.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2022
Constitutional Framework, Judiciary, Union and its Territory, State Government, Parliament, Emergency Provisions, Local Government, Union Territories and Special Areas, Centre-State Relations, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties
2021
1. Consider the following statements:
1. The governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the central government.
2. Certain provisions in the constitution of India give the central government the right to issue directions to the RBI in public interest.
3. The governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is indeed appointed by the Central Government, and the Governor’s powers are outlined in the RBI Act of 1934, making Statements 1 and 3 correct. While the RBI, as the central bank, operates with a degree of autonomy, the RBI Act and the Banking Regulation Act provide the legal framework for its operations, not the Constitution of India itself. Thus, the statement about the Constitution providing the central government the right to issue directions to the RBI is not accurate in the context provided.
77. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model different from that model?
1. As regards legislation, the British parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the amendment of an act of the parliament are referred to the constitution bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The British Parliament operates under the principle of parliamentary sovereignty, meaning it can make or repeal any law. In contrast, the Indian Parliament’s powers are constrained by the Constitution, and it cannot legislate on matters that fall outside its jurisdiction as defined by the Constitution. Additionally, the Supreme Court of India has the authority to review the constitutionality of legislative acts, a power that is emblematic of India’s written Constitution and judicial review system, distinguishing it from the UK’s uncodified constitution and parliamentary sovereignty.
78. With reference to the union government, consider the following statements:
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the department of personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the administrative reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the prime minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:b) 2 only
Explanation:
The Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms, now known as the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), was indeed established on the recommendations of the Administrative Reforms Commission of 1966 to bring a more systematic approach to the management of personnel and administrative reforms within the government. It was placed under the charge of the Prime Minister to signify its importance in the administrative machinery. The specific recommendation by the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar committee as mentioned does not align with historical records regarding administrative reforms, making statement 1 incorrect.
79. ‘Right to privacy’ is protected under which article of the constitution of India?
a) Article 15
b) Article 19
c) Article 21
d) Article 29
Answer:c) Article 21
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India, in the landmark judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union Of India And Ors, 2017, explicitly recognized the right to privacy as a fundamental right protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Article 21 ensures the right to life and personal liberty, and the Court held that privacy is intrinsic to life and liberty and thus is protected by it.
82. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:b) 2 only
Explanation:
Judicial custody means that the accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate but is usually kept in jail, not in a police station, making Statement 1 incorrect. During judicial custody, any interrogation by the police requires the court’s approval, making Statement 2 correct.
83. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 and 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
Parole is not considered an absolute right of a prisoner; rather, it is granted based on specific criteria and circumstances. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as state governments in India have their own set of rules governing the release of prisoners on parole.
84. At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Explanation:
The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency responsible for implementing the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. This Act aims to recognize and vest the forest rights and occupation in forest land in forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
85. A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the following articles of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 14
b) Article 28
c) Article 32
d) Article 44
Answer: a) Article 14
Explanation:
Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. A legislation that provides unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power to the executive would violate this principle of equality, as it could lead to arbitrary decision-making and discrimination.
86. Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
b) The union legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
c) The union cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
d) The fundamental rights are enforceable by courts of law.
Answer:a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
Explanation:
The safeguarding of the independence of the judiciary is a fundamental aspect of a federal system, ensuring that there is an impartial arbitrator available to resolve disputes between different levels of government or between the government and citizens. This feature is critical in maintaining the federal character of the polity by providing checks and balances.
87. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
a) a community of persons permanently occupying a different territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
b) a politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
c) a number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition, and government.
d) a society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority, and an independent judiciary.
Answer: b) a politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance.
Explanation:
The definition encompasses the essential elements of a State under international law and political science, which include a defined territory, a permanent population, a government, and the capacity to enter into relations with other states.
88. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Constitution of India allows for a retired Supreme Court judge to be appointed to sit and act as a judge of the Supreme Court by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President. This provision ensures that the judiciary can utilize the experience of retired judges when needed. High Courts also have the power to review their judgments, similar to the Supreme Court, making Statement 2 also accurate.
89. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the head of state.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
India recognizes a single citizenship for the entire country, which includes all states and union territories, making Statement 1 correct. The Constitution of India does not restrict the office of the President (head of state) only to citizens by birth, thus Statement 2 is incorrect. Indian citizenship law allows for the deprivation of citizenship under certain conditions, making Statement 3 incorrect.
90. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
a) a committed judiciary
b) centralization of powers
c) elected government
d) separation of powers
Answer: d) separation of powers
Explanation:
The separation of powers among the executive, legislative, and judiciary branches is a fundamental principle in a liberal democracy that ensures no single branch has unfettered control, providing a system of checks and balances that safeguards individual liberties.
91. Under the Indian constitution, concentration of wealth violates
a) the right to equality
b) the directive principles of state policy
c) the right to freedom
d) the concept of welfare
Answer: b) the directive principles of state policy
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy, particularly Article 39 (b) and (c), direct the State to ensure that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment. These principles are guidelines to be followed by the State to promote welfare.
92. What is the position of the right to property in India?
a) Legal rights available to citizens only.
b) Legal rights available to any person
c) Fundamental rights available to citizens only
d) Neither fundamental right nor legal right
Answer:b) Legal rights available to any person
Explanation:
The right to property was originally a fundamental right under the Constitution of India but was moved to the category of legal rights under Article 300A by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law, making it a legal right available to all persons, not just citizens.
93. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
a) A Democratic Republic
b) A sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A sovereign secular Democratic Republic
d) A sovereign socialist secular Democratic Republic
Answer:b) A sovereign Democratic Republic
Explanation:
On 26th January 1950, India became a sovereign democratic republic with the adoption of the Constitution, which established the country as a sovereign entity governed by an elected system of government. The terms “socialist” and “secular” were added to the preamble by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, making them not part of the original description in 1950.
94. Constitutional government means
a) a representative government of a nation with a federal structure
b) a government whose head enjoys nominal powers
c) a government whose head enjoys real powers
d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Answer:d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Explanation:
A constitutional government is defined by its adherence to a foundational legal document, the Constitution, which outlines the structure, powers, and limits of government. This ensures that all government actions and laws are made within the framework established by the Constitution, safeguarding democracy and the rule of law.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2021
Union and its Territory, Judiciary, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties, Parliamentary System, Amendment of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions, Union Executive, State Government, Centre-State Relations, Local Government, Union Territories and Special Areas
2020
2. Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
a) the matter of creating new All India services
b) amending the constitution
c) the removal of the government
d) making cut motions
Answer: b) amending the constitution
Explanation:
Rajya Sabha shares equal powers with the Lok Sabha in the process of amending the Constitution. Amendments to the Constitution can be initiated in either house of Parliament and must be passed by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in each house, indicating the joint responsibility and power in this critical legislative process.
4. Which one of the following categories of fundamental rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
a) Right against exploitation
b) right to freedom
c) right to constitutional remedies
d) right to equality
Answer: d) right to equality
Explanation:
The prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, including the abolition of untouchability, is specifically addressed under the Right to Equality, enshrined in Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution. Article 17 explicitly abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
5. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
a) the preamble of the constitution
b) a directive principle of state policy
c) the 7th schedule
d) the conventional practice
Answer: b) a directive principle of state policy
Explanation:
The separation of judiciary from the executive is mandated by Article 50 of the Constitution of India, which is one of the Directive Principles of State Policy. This principle directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state to maintain the independence of the judiciary.
6. Along with the budget, the finance minister also places other documents before the parliament which include ‘The macroeconomic framework statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
a) long-standing parliamentary convention
b) article 112 and article 110 (1) of the constitution of India
c) article 113 of the constitution of India
d) provisions of the fiscal responsibility and budget management act, 2003.
Answer: d) provisions of the fiscal responsibility and budget management act, 2003.
Explanation:
The Macroeconomic Framework Statement is one of the documents presented by the Finance Minister along with the annual budget, as mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. This act aims to ensure fiscal discipline by setting targets for the government’s budgetary operations.
7. A constitutional government by definition is a
a) government by legislature
b) popular government
c) multi-party government
d) limited government
Answer: d) limited government
Explanation:
A constitutional government is defined as a limited government, which means its powers and functions are defined and limited by a constitution. This limitation is designed to protect individual rights and liberties by preventing arbitrary use of power.
8. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation:
The principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) are echoed in various parts of the Indian Constitution, including the Preamble, which outlines the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity; the Directive Principles of State Policy, which guide the state in applying these principles in governance; and the Fundamental Duties, which underscore the citizens’ role in upholding these rights and principles.
11. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
b) the government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
c) the government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
d) the government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term.
Answer: b) the government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
Explanation:
A defining feature of a parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility of the government to the Parliament. This means that the government must retain the confidence of the legislative branch and can be removed by it through mechanisms like a no-confidence motion, underscoring the government’s accountability to Parliament.
12. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Preamble
d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: a) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy, outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, explicitly declare the ideal of a Welfare State. These principles aim to establish economic and social democracy through a framework of welfare measures, aiming to provide citizens with a decent standard of living and to address social inequalities.
13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizen’s liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
The concept of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution has been evolved through judicial interpretations, particularly in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), and is not explicitly defined in the Constitution itself, making statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as the Constitution does provide for judicial review as a mechanism to safeguard citizens’ liberties and ensure that laws and executive actions do not violate the Constitution’s ideals.
14. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
a) the final goal of a stateless society
b) Class struggle
c) Abolition of private property
d) economic determinism
Answer: a) the final goal of a stateless society
Explanation:
Both Gandhism and Marxism, despite their various ideological differences, share the ultimate vision of establishing a stateless society. For Marxism, it is a classless society where the state apparatus would wither away following the end of class struggle. Gandhism envisions a stateless society structured around self-sufficient, decentralized villages acting as autonomous democratic units.
16. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect.
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.
Answer: c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India, through its judgments, has affirmed that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. It embodies the fundamental values and the guiding principles of the Constitution, and it has significant legal effect in interpreting statutes and provisions within the Constitution.
18. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: d) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy, contained in Part IV of the Constitution, are not enforceable by any court. However, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws, thereby guiding the creation of a welfare state.
19. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for 6 months even if he/she is not a member of the legislature of that state.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for 5 years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as per the constitutional provision that allows a non-legislative member to be appointed as a minister with the stipulation that he/she must get elected to the legislature within six months. Statement 2 is incorrect as the disqualification for contesting elections for a person convicted of certain offenses is not permanent and varies based on the laws and the nature of the conviction.
20. Consider the following statements:
1. The president of India can summon a session of the parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The constitution of India provides for 3 sessions of the parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all 3 sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as the President can summon the Parliament to meet at such times and places as he/she thinks fit, but traditionally, sessions are held in New Delhi. Statement 2 is misleading; while the Constitution does not explicitly mandate the number of sessions, the Parliament typically meets thrice a year (Budget, Monsoon, and Winter sessions). Statement 3 is correct, as the Constitution does not specify a minimum number of days for Parliament meetings within a year.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2020
Amendment of the Constitution, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Parliamentary System, Union Legislature, The Preamble, State Government
2019
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th amendment to the constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment of the Constitution of India did not include a provision that placed the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review, making Statement 1 incorrect. Statement 2 is correct; the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment, which was concerned with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), on the grounds that it compromised the independence of the judiciary.
46. Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that house and by not less than 2/3 of total members of that house present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1,3 and 4
Answer: c) 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
The procedure for the impeachment of judges, including the Supreme Court judges, is detailed in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, making Statement 3 correct. Statement 4 accurately describes the requisite majority for impeachment proceedings. The Constitution provides the broad framework but does not delve into detailed definitions of ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour,’ and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to admit or reject an impeachment motion, making Statements 1 and 2 incorrect.
47. The 9th schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the Prime Ministership of
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
c) Indira Gandhi
d) Morarji Desai
Answer: a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The 9th Schedule was introduced to the Constitution of India through the first amendment in 1951 under the Prime Ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. It was created to protect land reform and other laws included in it from judicial review.
49. Consider the following statements:
1. The parliament (prevention of disqualification) act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended 5 times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, provides exemptions for certain offices from the disqualification on the grounds of holding an Office of Profit, and it has been amended multiple times. Statement 3 is incorrect as the term ‘Office of Profit’ is not explicitly defined in the Constitution, leading to interpretations by the judiciary and amendments to clarify its application.
50. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
a) Third Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Ninth Schedule
d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: b) Fifth Schedule
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in any state except the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It includes provisions to protect the land rights of tribal people, which can render the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining null and void to protect tribal interests.
52. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the president of India can declare a financial emergency without the counsel from the cabinet.
d) State legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
Answer: b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
Explanation:
Article 142 of the Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This means the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142 are broad and not limited by other laws, allowing it to ensure justice is served even if it requires stepping beyond the limitations of existing legislation.
53. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Governor makes a customary address to members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as it is customary for the Governor to address the Legislative Assembly at the commencement of the first session of the year, outlining the government’s policy and agenda. Statement 2 is also correct; in the absence of specific rules in a state legislature, it may follow the procedural rules of the Lok Sabha as a guide, ensuring legislative processes continue smoothly.
56. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
a) Article 19
b) Article 21
c) Article 25
d) Article 29
Answer: b) Article 21
Explanation:
Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, has been interpreted by the Supreme Court of India to include the right to marry a person of one’s choice. This interpretation upholds the fundamental right to privacy and individual autonomy as integral aspects of the right to life and personal liberty.
66. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments, recommended that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links, especially someone who has not been involved in politics in the recent past. This recommendation aimed to ensure impartiality and fairness in the role of the Governor.
69. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,3 and 4
c) 3,4 and 5
d) 2 and 5
Answer: a) 1 and 2
Explanation:
Parliamentary oversight in India includes both Ad Hoc Committees and Department Related Standing Committees, which review the functioning and policy frameworks of independent regulators in various sectors. These committees ensure that regulatory bodies operate within their legislative mandate and in the public interest.
81. With reference to the constitution of India, consider the following statements:
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An Amendment to the constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect as High Courts in India do have the jurisdiction to declare a central law unconstitutional if it violates the Constitution. Statement 2 is also incorrect, as the Supreme Court has the authority to review constitutional amendments to ensure they do not alter or damage the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution, as established in the Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973.
85. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
b) Absence of restraint
c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes.
d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer: d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Explanation:
The most comprehensive and positive definition of liberty in the context of polity is the opportunity to develop oneself fully. This definition encompasses the essence of liberty as not just freedom from restraint or protection against tyranny but as an enabling condition that allows individuals to pursue their potential and aspirations in a supportive and conducive environment.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2019
Amendment of the Constitution, Judiciary, The Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Union Legislature, State Legislature
2018
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for ECONOMICS PRELIMS 2023
1. Consider the following statements:
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “leader of the opposition” was organized for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognized as the leader of the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The first statement is incorrect because the Swatantra Party was not the single largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha. In fact, the Swatantra Party was founded in 1959, after the first Lok Sabha was formed. The correct statement about the “Leader of the Opposition” is the second one; the position was formally recognized in 1969, which aligns with the historical development of the role in the Indian parliamentary system. The third statement regarding the requirement of a minimum of 75 members for a party to have its leader recognized as the Leader of the Opposition is also incorrect. The actual rule requires that the largest opposition party must have at least 10% of the total seats in the Lok Sabha to qualify for this position.
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: The first statement is correct because the Parliament of India does have the authority to place laws within the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. This provision was designed to provide certain laws immunity from judicial review, primarily to ensure that agrarian reform and other important laws could not be challenged in courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. However, the second statement is not entirely accurate as of a landmark judgement by the Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho case (2007), where it was ruled that even laws under the Ninth Schedule are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution or the fundamental rights. Therefore, the validity of laws placed in the Ninth Schedule can indeed be examined by courts.
20. With reference to the parliament of India, which of the following parliamentary committees scrutinises and reports to the house whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the constitution or delegated by the parliament are being properly exercised by the executive within the scope of such delegation?
a) Committee on Government Assurances
b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
c) Rules Committee
d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Explanation: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is specifically tasked with scrutinizing the regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., that are laid before the Parliament. This committee ensures that the executive branch is exercising its delegated powers within the bounds set by the Parliament or the Constitution. It checks for any excesses of power or any inconsistencies with the laws passed by the Parliament. The role of this committee is crucial for maintaining legislative oversight over the executive’s rule-making powers, thereby ensuring that delegated legislation conforms to the general principles laid down by the legislature.
31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A money bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c) A money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer: c) A money bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
Explanation: The incorrect statement regarding Money Bills is option (c). Money Bills, as defined under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution, primarily concern the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of taxes, the regulation of borrowing, the custody and maintenance of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, appropriation of funds out of the Consolidated Fund, and any matters related to the above. However, the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund is not considered under Money Bills but under a different procedure, making statement (c) incorrect. Money Bills are mainly concerned with the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund of India.
32. With reference to the election of the president of India, consider the following statements:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: The value of the vote of each MLA indeed varies from state to state. This is because it is calculated based on the population of the state according to the 1971 census and the total number of elected members of the Legislative Assembly, ensuring a balance between the representation of each state’s population and the equality among states as a whole in the electoral college for the President.
The second statement is incorrect because the value of the votes of MPs from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is the same. The value is calculated based on the total value of votes of all the MLAs of all the states and the Union territories, divided by the total number of elected members of both houses of Parliament. This ensures that the parliamentary component of the electoral college is balanced against the collective vote of the state legislators.
39. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: The first statement is correct. If the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly ceases to be a member of the assembly for reasons such as disqualification, resignation, or otherwise, he or she must vacate the office of the Speaker. The role of the Speaker is intrinsically linked to being a member of the Assembly, and losing membership means losing the office of the Speaker.
The second statement is incorrect because the Speaker does not immediately vacate his or her office upon the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. Instead, the Speaker remains in office until the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution, ensuring continuity and the ability to convene the next Assembly. This provision allows for a smoother transition and the handling of necessary administrative tasks during the period between the dissolution and the formation of the new Assembly.
40. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer: b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
Explanation: The most accurate reflection of the relationship between law and liberty is that without laws, there can be no liberty. This statement is based on the understanding that laws create the framework within which freedoms can be enjoyed. Laws protect individuals from infringement of their rights by others and ensure that there is a recognized procedure for addressing grievances. Without laws, society would descend into anarchy, where the strong could easily oppress the weak, effectively leading to a loss of liberty for many. Laws provide the necessary boundaries that allow for the safe and equitable exercise of freedoms, ensuring that one individual’s liberties do not become the cause of another’s oppression.
41. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the governor of a state in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The governor of a state in India enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings during their term of office, which means that no criminal charges can be initiated against them in any court while they are in office. This is a constitutional protection meant to ensure the governor’s ability to perform their duties without fear of litigation.
The second statement is also correct. The Constitution of India provides that the emoluments and allowances of the governor of a state cannot be diminished during their term of office. This provision is designed to ensure the governor’s independence and impartiality by protecting their financial status from being influenced or manipulated by the executive or the legislature during their term.
45. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ‘Rule of Law’?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law.
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1,2 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: c) 1,2 and 4 only
Explanation: The concept of the Rule of Law is foundational to democratic governance and implies that all individuals, institutions, and entities, public or private, including the state itself, are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated, and which are consistent with international human rights norms and standards. The main features include:
1. Limitation of powers: This ensures that governmental powers are limited by law to protect citizens from arbitrary use of power.
2. Equality before law: This principle asserts that every individual is subject to the law, regardless of their status or position, ensuring fairness and justice in the application of the law.
3. Liberty and civil rights: These are essential components of the Rule of Law, ensuring that individuals have protected freedoms and rights that cannot be arbitrarily taken away.
The statement about people’s responsibility to the Government is not considered a main feature of the Rule of Law. Instead, the Rule of Law focuses on the responsibilities and limitations of the government towards the people, rather than the other way around.
53. If the President of India exercises his powers as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved
b) the powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
c) Article 19 is suspended in that state.
d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: b) the powers of the legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
Explanation: Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, often referred to as the provision for ‘President’s Rule,’ allows the President of India to take over the executive and legislative powers of a state in certain situations, typically when a state government is unable to function according to the constitutional norms. When Article 356 is invoked, the state legislature does not automatically dissolve; rather, its powers are assumed by or exercised under the authority of the Parliament. This means that during the period of President’s Rule, the Parliament can make laws on behalf of the state legislature, and the central government assumes the executive functions of the state. The dissolution of the state assembly is a separate decision that can be made, but it is not an automatic consequence of invoking Article 356.
92. Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty. Which of the following in the constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd amendment to the constitution.
b) Article 17 and the directive principles of state policy in part IV
c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in part III
d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th amendment to the constitution.
Answer: c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in part III
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgment, has interpreted the right to privacy as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution, which states, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.” This interpretation broadens the scope of Article 21, making the right to privacy a fundamental right protected under the umbrella of personal liberty. The freedoms guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution, particularly concerning personal liberty, thus include the right to privacy as an essential component, ensuring individuals’ protection against arbitrary interference by the state in their personal lives.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2018
President, Parliament, Parliamentary Committees, Amendment of the Constitution, Governor, Emergency Provisions, Fundamental Rights.
2017
1. With reference to the parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Private members bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the president of India.
2. Recently, a private members bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The first statement is incorrect because a Private Members’ Bill can be presented by any Member of Parliament who is not a Minister. This includes both elected and nominated members. The distinction isn’t about nomination by the President but rather about not being part of the government. The second statement is also incorrect because private members’ bills have been passed in the past, though it’s very rare. Thus, neither statement is correct.
5. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
a) privileges
b) Restraints
c) competition
d) ideology
Answer: a) privileges
Explanation: The essence of equality in society is ensuring that no individual or group has undue advantages or privileges over others purely based on arbitrary criteria like birth, race, gender, etc. When equality is emphasized, it aims to eliminate unearned privileges, creating a level playing field for all individuals. Restraints, competition, and ideology do not inherently contradict equality; in fact, they can exist within an egalitarian system as long as they don’t lead to unfair privileges.
7. Which principle among the following was added to the directive principles of state policy by the 42nd amendment to the constitution?
a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
b) participation of workers in the management of industries.
c) right to work, education and public assistance.
d) securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers.
Answer: b) participation of workers in the management of industries.
Explanation: The 42nd amendment, also known as the “Mini-Constitution” amendment, made several changes to the constitution, including additions to the Directive Principles of State Policy. The principle of participation of workers in the management of industries was emphasized to promote industrial democracy and ensure that workers have a say in the management decisions affecting their work and workplace conditions.
8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a) Rights are claims of the state against the citizens.
b) Rights and privileges which are incorporated in the constitution of a state.
c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Answer: c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
Explanation: Rights are entitlements or freedoms guaranteed to individuals against any infringement by the state or other individuals. They are designed to protect individuals’ freedoms and ensure their ability to participate in the civil and political life of the state without discrimination or repression. This makes the rights essentially claims of the citizens against the state, ensuring that the government cannot unjustly interfere in certain fundamental aspects of individuals’ lives.
16. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
a) Federalism
b) Democratic decentralisation
c) Administrative delegation
d) Direct democracy
Answer: b) Democratic decentralisation
Explanation: Local self-government refers to the empowerment of local government bodies to govern their own affairs, rather than being controlled centrally by the national government. This is a form of democratic decentralisation, where power is distributed from central authorities to local entities, enabling citizens to participate directly in decision-making processes that affect their local communities. It enhances democracy by bringing government closer to the people and making it more responsive to local needs and conditions.
17. Consider the following statements:
with reference to the constitution of India, the directive principles of state policy constitute limitations upon
1. Legislative function.
2. Executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, aimed at establishing a just society in the country. These principles are not enforceable by any court, but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country, making them the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Therefore, they do not constitute limitations upon legislative or executive function; instead, they act as directives for creating a framework within which laws and governance should ideally operate.
20. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held by benami are liable for confiscation by the government.
3. The act provides for 3 authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The statement that properties held by benami are liable for confiscation by the government is correct. This is a key provision of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, which aims to combat money laundering and black money in the real estate sector. The first statement is incorrect because a benami transaction involves the purchase of property by one person but the property is held in the name of another person who does not pay for the property. The awareness of the owner about the transaction does not necessarily determine its benami status. The third statement is incorrect because the Act not only provides for authorities responsible for investigation but also an appellate mechanism for those aggrieved by the decisions of such authorities.
36. Which of the following statements is/are true of the fundamental duties of an Indian citizen?
1. A Legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen, listed in Article 51A of the Constitution, are moral obligations that aim to promote a sense of discipline and commitment among the citizens. There is no specific legislative process provided to enforce these duties directly, meaning the first statement is incorrect. While they embody the spirit of being responsible citizens, they are not directly correlative to legal duties, which are enforceable by law. Thus, the second statement is also incorrect.
38.Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the preamble to the constitution of India?
a) Liberty of thought
b) economic liberty
c) liberty of expression
d) liberty of belief
Answer: b) economic liberty
Explanation: The Preamble to the Constitution of India mentions justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as its core values. Liberty is specified in terms of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. Economic liberty, while an important aspect of modern democratic societies, is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble. The emphasis is more on social, political, and individual liberties rather than economic liberty per se, making option (b) the correct answer.
39. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian industry.
2. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Quality Council of India (QCI) was indeed set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations: ASSOCHAM, CII, and FICCI. This makes statement 1 correct. Statement 2 is also correct; the appointment of the Chairman of QCI is indeed a prerogative of the Prime Minister based on recommendations, reflecting a blend of government and industry involvement in its governance. This setup aims to ensure that QCI functions as a credible organization for promoting quality standards across various sectors.
42. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
b) The method for strengthening executive leadership.
c) A superior individual with dynamism and vision.
d) Band of dedicated party workers.
Answer: a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
Explanation: The essence of democracy is the participation of the ordinary men and women in the governance process. This participation encourages the development and application of the intelligence and character of the general populace. Unlike autocratic or oligarchic systems, where a select few make decisions, democracy involves a wider section of society in decision-making processes, thereby fostering a more engaged, informed, and morally active citizenry. This participatory nature is considered democracy’s superior virtue because it democratizes intelligence and character, not confining it to a select elite.
46. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
a) the executive and legislature work independently.
b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
d) The head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Answer: c) The executive remains responsible to the legislature.
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive branch derives its legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature or parliament. This means that the government must maintain the confidence of the legislative branch to stay in power. This responsibility ensures a form of checks and balances within the government, promoting transparency and accountability. If the legislature loses confidence in the executive, it can necessitate a change in leadership or even trigger elections. This feature distinguishes parliamentary systems from others where the executive may operate more independently of the legislature.
47. In the context of India which one of the following is the correct relationship between rights and duties?
a) Rights are correlated with duties.
b) rights are personal and hence independent of society and duties.
c) Rights, not duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
d) Duties, not rights, are important for the stability of the state.
Answer: a) Rights are correlated with duties.
Explanation: In the Indian context, the Constitution and various legal frameworks emphasize that rights and duties go hand in hand. Rights confer individuals the freedom to act in certain ways, while duties are obligations individuals owe to the state and their fellow citizens. This relationship implies that for a society to function harmoniously and for individuals to enjoy their rights fully, they must also fulfill their duties. It’s a reciprocal relationship where the exercise of rights is balanced with the performance of duties, ensuring social and national stability.
48. The mind of the makers of the constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
a) The preamble
b) The fundamental rights
c) The directive principles of state policy
d) The fundamental duties
Answer: a) The preamble
Explanation: The Preamble to the Constitution of India is a brief introductory statement that sets out the guiding purposes and principles of the document. It reflects the ideals and aspirations of the Constituent Assembly that drafted the Constitution. The Preamble outlines the objectives of the Constitution, such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity, and declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. It is considered a reflection of the mind and spirit of the Constitution’s makers, summarizing their vision for India’s socio-political and economic framework.
50. The parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation: The Parliament of India has various mechanisms to exercise control and oversight over the functions of the Council of Ministers. These include:
• Adjournment motion: This is used to draw attention to a matter of urgent public importance, and its adoption can lead to the setting aside of the normal business of the House to discuss the matter raised.
• Question hour: This is the first hour of a parliamentary sitting session dedicated to questions that Members of Parliament ask the government. It’s a direct method of holding the government accountable for its actions and policies.
• Supplementary questions: These follow the main questions during the question hour and allow MPs to get further clarifications on the responses given by the government.
Together, these tools enable Parliament to scrutinize government activities, ensuring accountability and transparency.
57. For Election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
a) anyone residing in India
b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
d) any citizen of India
Answer: c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
Explanation: For someone to contest in the Lok Sabha elections, it is mandatory to be a registered voter. This implies that the person must be a citizen of India and their name must appear on the electoral roll of any constituency. The electoral roll is a list of all persons eligible to vote in a particular area or constituency. This requirement ensures that candidates have a legally recognized stake in the political process of the country, as demonstrated by their enrollment in the electoral register, making them eligible to both vote and be voted for in elections.
76. Consider the following statements:
1. In the elections for Lok Sabha or state assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50% of the votes polled to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha the speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the deputy speaker to the opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: In India, the electoral system for Lok Sabha and state assemblies operates on a simple plurality or ‘first-past-the-post’ system. This means that the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, regardless of whether they have secured more than 50% of the votes polled. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. As for statement 2, while it is a convention (but not a constitutional requirement) that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes from the ruling party and the Deputy Speaker is often from an opposition party, this arrangement is not explicitly laid down in the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 2 is also not accurate according to the strict letter of the law.
86. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
a) Fundamental Right
b) Natural Right
c) Constitutional Right
d) Legal Right
Answer: c) Constitutional Right
Explanation: The right to vote and to be elected in India is a Constitutional Right, conferred by the Constitution itself. It is enshrined under the Representation of People’s Act, 1950 and 1951, and is not listed among the Fundamental Rights or the Directive Principles of State Policy. This right is provided to citizens as per the legal framework established by the Indian Constitution and is subject to certain qualifications and disqualifications as laid out in the Constitution and relevant laws.
90. Consider the following statements:
1. The election Commission of India is a 5 member body.
2. The Union ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only
Answer: d) 3 only
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is not a 5 member body; it traditionally consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, making statement 1 incorrect. The election schedule is determined by the Election Commission of India, not the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, making statement 2 incorrect. The Election Commission does indeed have the authority to resolve disputes related to splits/mergers of recognized political parties, making statement 3 correct.
92. In India, Judicial Review implies
a) the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) The power of the judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the legislatures.
c) the power of the judiciary to review all the relative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
d) the power of the judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer: a) the power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Explanation: Judicial review in India refers to the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts and executive orders of both the central and state governments. If any law or order is found to be in violation of the Constitution, the judiciary has the power to declare it null and void. This does not involve questioning the wisdom or motives behind the law but rather its alignment with the Constitution.
96. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequence of the proclamation of the president’s rule in state?
1. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the state
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The proclamation of President’s Rule in a state does not necessarily lead to the dissolution of the state legislative assembly or the local bodies. While the assembly may be kept in suspended animation, and the state’s council of ministers is indeed dismissed (making statement 2 a direct consequence of President’s Rule), local bodies are not affected by this proclamation, as their governance structures are separate from the state government’s executive machinery.
97. Which of the following are envisaged by the right against exploitation in the constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1,2 and 4 only
b) 2,3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: c) 1 and 4 only
Explanation: The right against exploitation in the Constitution of India specifically encompasses the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23) and the prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines, i.e., child labor (Article 24). Abolition of untouchability (Article 17) and protection of the interests of minorities are covered under other parts of the Constitution but are not part of the right against exploitation per se.
99. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the cabinet form of government:
a) an arrangement for minimising the criticism against the government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the government to the people.
d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Answer: c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the government to the people.
Explanation: The cabinet form of government, integral to parliamentary democracy, is based on the principle of collective responsibility. This means that all members of the government, together with the Prime Minister or head of the government, are collectively accountable to the legislature and, by extension, to the people. This ensures that the government operates as a unified entity, with decisions and policies reflecting the consensus of the cabinet, and any failure or success is shared among all its members.
100. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
b) powers have been clearly divided between the centre and the states.
c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer: d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Explanation: Indian federalism was not created as a result of an agreement among the federating units (states). Instead, it was established by the Constitution of India, which delineates the powers and functions of the central and state governments. The Constitution provides a framework for the distribution of powers and responsibilities between these two levels of government. The features of an independent judiciary, division of powers, and unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha are part of the constitutional design to balance the needs and rights of different parts of the country, whereas the federation was not formed through a process of negotiation or agreement among the states.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2017
Parliament, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Panchayati Raj, President, Citizenship, Centre–State Relations, Parliamentary Committees, Election Commission, Co-operative Societies, Supreme Court, Union Territories, Advocate General of the State, Planning Commission, National Human Rights Commission, Official Language, Public Services.
2016
1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The correct understanding of parliamentary procedures in India is crucial here. The first statement is incorrect because a bill pending in the Lok Sabha does not lapse upon its prorogation. Prorogation is the ending of a session of Parliament, and it does not affect the bills’ status, which can be carried over to the next session. The second statement is accurate because when the Lok Sabha is dissolved, bills pending in the Rajya Sabha that have not yet been passed by the Lok Sabha do not lapse. This distinction highlights the continuity of the Rajya Sabha, which, unlike the Lok Sabha, is not subject to dissolution.
25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Secretary in a state is appointed by the governor of that state.
2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The first statement is correct in that the Chief Secretary of a state is indeed appointed by the governor. However, it’s important to note that this appointment is made on the advice of the state government, indicating a procedural formality rather than discretionary power. The second statement is incorrect as the Chief Secretary, being a civil service position, does not have a fixed tenure and serves at the pleasure of the state government. Therefore, the correct explanation for this answer is that the specificity of the Chief Secretary’s appointment process and lack of a fixed tenure make both statements as presented incorrect in their implication.
40. With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. As per the act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The Gram Nyayalaya Act is designed to provide accessible justice to people in rural areas, involving both civil and criminal cases. This means the first statement is incorrect as Gram Nyayalayas can indeed hear criminal cases alongside civil cases. The second statement is correct; the Act allows for the involvement of local social activists as mediators/conciliators, aiming to facilitate simpler, faster, and more culturally relevant resolutions to disputes. This inclusion helps bridge the gap between formal legal systems and traditional community practices.
95. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership.
c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.
Answer: d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.
Explanation: This provision under the Indian Constitution is a testament to the special powers granted to the Rajya Sabha, allowing it to serve a crucial role in India’s federal structure. It ensures that the Parliament can legislate on matters in the State List (normally reserved for state legislatures) when it is deemed necessary for national interest. The requirement for a two-thirds majority of members present and voting underscores the importance and seriousness of overriding state autonomy in these instances, ensuring that such decisions are made with considerable support.
100. Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The first statement is incorrect because the minimum age for a person to be eligible for membership in a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25. This lower age limit is set to encourage younger individuals to participate in local governance. The second statement is correct; if a Panchayat is dissolved prematurely, any newly reconstituted Panchayat will only serve for the remainder of the original term. This ensures continuity in local governance and respects the original electoral mandate while also holding space for extraordinary circumstances that might necessitate dissolution.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2016
Parliament, State Government, Panchayati Raj, Union Territories and Special Areas.
2015
7. Consider the following statements regarding the directive principles of state policy:
1. The principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy are intended to guide the government in crafting policies that aim for a just society, focusing on socio-economic democracy and welfare. These principles suggest how to build an equitable society but are not enforceable by courts, indicating they serve as guidance rather than legal mandates.
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a money bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands for grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the annual financial statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha’s role in financial legislation is advisory for the most part, unable to amend or reject money bills and without the authority to vote on demands for grants. However, it retains the capability to discuss the budget, thus participating in financial discussions without decisive power.
37.When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the houses of the parliament, it has to be passed by
a) a simple majority of members present and voting
b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
c) two-thirds majority of the houses
d) absolute majority of the houses
Answer: a) a simple majority of members present and voting
Explanation: A joint session of Parliament allows for the resolution of legislative standoffs through a simple majority of the members present and voting. This process ensures that a bill can advance despite disagreements between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
44. Consider the following statements:
1. The Executive power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: The President holds the executive power in India, contrary to the idea that it lies with the Prime Minister. Additionally, the Prime Minister does not hold the position of chairman of the Civil Services Board, correcting a common misunderstanding about the power distribution and administrative roles within the Indian government.
51. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) None
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: The Cabinet Mission of 1946 was sent by the British government to India to discuss and plan for the transfer of power from the British government to Indian leadership, thereby outlining the future constitution of India. It recommended the formation of a federal government with a Union of India comprising both British India and the princely states. The mission proposed a loose federal structure with significant powers to the provinces and did not specifically address the enlargement of powers of the Indian courts or explicitly providing for more Indians in the Indian Civil Service (ICS). Therefore, the correct statement is that it recommended a federal government.
59. The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
b) determine the boundaries between States
c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
d) protect the interests of all the border states
Answer: a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
Explanation: The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Indian Constitution contain provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule pertains to the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas and Tribes in any state except the four states covered by the Sixth Schedule, namely Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule provides for autonomous districts and autonomous regions within these states, granting them a significant degree of administrative autonomy and powers to legislate on certain subjects. Both schedules are designed to protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes and ensure their autonomy in specific regions, catering to their unique social and economic needs.
60. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c) 2 only
Explanation: The preparation of the Union Budget is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance, particularly the Department of Economic Affairs, not the Department of Revenue. Statement 2 is correct; no amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without Parliamentary authorization, ensuring legislative oversight over government spending. Statement 3 is incorrect; disbursements from the Public Account do not require Parliamentary authorization as these funds relate to transactions where the government is acting as a banker or trustee, such as provident funds, and therefore have a different set of rules governing their disbursement.
61. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
a) The President of India
b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: d) The Supreme Court of India
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India acts as the custodian of the Constitution. It has the ultimate authority to interpret the Constitution, ensure its provisions are upheld, and adjudicate disputes involving questions of constitutional law. Through its power of judicial review, the Supreme Court can declare laws and executive actions unconstitutional if they contravene the Constitution, thereby safeguarding the constitutional framework and the rights it grants to the citizens.
63. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Answer: c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is the apex body responsible for the appraisal of proposals for release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials and commercial release of GE crops. The GEAC ensures that any genetic engineering activities or products introduced into the environment are safe and do not pose a threat to biodiversity or human and animal health.
82. Consider the following statements:
1. The Legislative Council of a state in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: According to the Constitution of India, the maximum size of the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) of a state can only be up to one-third of the total strength of the state’s Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), not more than half. Additionally, the Chairman of the Legislative Council is not nominated by the Governor but is elected by the members of the Council itself. These provisions ensure a balanced representation and maintain the autonomy of the state legislative bodies.
83. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
a) Preamble of the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Fundamental Duties
Answer: d) Fundamental Duties
Explanation: The duty “to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is explicitly mentioned in the Fundamental Duties section of the Indian Constitution. Article 51A, which lists the Fundamental Duties, includes this duty to remind the citizens of their responsibility towards maintaining the country’s integrity and sovereignty. This provision emphasizes the importance of national unity and integrity as essential values every citizen should strive to uphold.
85. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1,2 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The Panchayati Raj system in India is aimed primarily at achieving democratic decentralization and ensuring people’s participation in development. By bringing governance closer to the local level, it empowers citizens and enables more effective and tailored development policies. Although political accountability and financial mobilization are related outcomes, the system’s fundamental objectives are encapsulated in promoting grassroots democracy and active citizen participation.
89. The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
a) Preamble
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Rights
d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: b) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The concept of a “Welfare State” is most closely associated with the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution. These principles are guidelines for the state to follow in crafting laws and policies aimed at establishing social and economic welfare, equitable distribution of resources, and ensuring a decent standard of living for all citizens. Although the Preamble and Fundamental Rights contribute to this goal, the Directive Principles are specifically designed to guide the state towards the realization of a Welfare State.
91. There is a parliamentary system of Government in India because the
a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Answer: d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Explanation: The essence of a parliamentary system in India is encapsulated by the accountability of the Council of Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, to the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament). This responsibility ensures that the executive branch (the government) is directly answerable to the legislature (Parliament), particularly to the directly elected Lok Sabha. This feature fosters a system of governance where the executive’s authority is derived from and maintained by the support of the legislature, reflecting the principles of collective responsibility and democratic accountability.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2015
Directive Principles of State Policy, Parliament, State Government, Panchayati Raj, Union Territories and Special Areas.
2014
18. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
a) The Committee on Public Accounts
b) The Committee on Estimates
c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
d) The Committee on Petitions.
Answer: b) The Committee on Estimates
Explanation: The Committee on Estimates is considered the largest committee of the Parliament due to its composition and the broad scope of its functions. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are drawn from the Lok Sabha, the lower house of India’s Parliament. The primary function of this committee is to examine the budget estimates presented to Parliament, suggesting economies in public expenditure and improvements in organization, efficiency, or administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying the estimates. Its large membership is indicative of its comprehensive role in scrutinizing the expenditures proposed by various departments of the government, making it the largest parliamentary committee in terms of its responsibility for overseeing government spending.
49. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
a) Second Schedule
b) Fifth Schedule
c) Eight Schedule
d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: d) Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, contains provisions regarding anti-defection. These provisions are designed to prevent elected members of Parliament and state legislatures from defecting from one party to another after the elections. It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified from their positions if they defect to another party or disobey the directives of their original party leadership. The anti-defection law aims to ensure stability in the government and maintain the integrity of the democratic process by discouraging opportunistic shifts in party allegiance.
55. In the Constitution of India, promotion of International peace and security is included in the
a) Preamble to the Constitution
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
c) Fundamental Duties
d) Ninth Schedule
Answer: b) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy, as outlined in Part IV of the Constitution of India, encompass the goal of promoting international peace and security. These principles, although not enforceable by any court, are fundamental in the governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. Specifically, Article 51 of the Constitution mentions that the State shall endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration. This directive reflects India’s commitment to being a peaceful and responsible member of the international community.
58. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet meetings.
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees.
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Answer: c) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Cabinet Secretariat plays a crucial role in the Indian administrative system, facilitating the smooth functioning of the Cabinet and its Committees. Its functions include the preparation of the agenda for Cabinet meetings, ensuring that the Cabinet members are well-informed about the issues to be discussed, and providing secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees, which are smaller entities formed to deliberate on specific matters. However, the allocation of financial resources to the Ministries is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat. This responsibility primarily lies with the Ministry of Finance, which formulates the national budget and oversees the distribution of financial resources among various ministries and departments in accordance with the government’s priorities and policies. Thus, the Cabinet Secretariat is involved in administrative and procedural assistance rather than financial allocation.
59. Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which
1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State authority
2. places effective restrictions on the authority of the state in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b) 2 Only
Explanation: A Constitutional Government operates under a set of laws that define the framework of governance, ensuring a balance between state authority and individual liberty. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 emphasizes the importance of restricting state power to protect individual freedoms and prevent the abuse of authority.
60. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
1) Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President rule.
2) Appointing the Ministers.
3) Reserving certain bills passed by the State legislature for consideration of the president of India.
4) Making the rules to conduct the business of the state government
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b) 1 and 3 Only
Explanation: The Governor of a State in India has certain discretionary powers that can be exercised without the advice of the Council of Ministers. These include sending a report to the President of India recommending President’s rule (1) and reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for the President’s consideration (3). However, appointing Ministers (2) is not a discretionary power but is done on the advice of the Chief Minister. Making rules to conduct the business of the state government (4) is also not a discretionary power of the Governor. Therefore, the correct answer reflects the Governor’s discretionary powers in specific scenarios, primarily concerning the oversight of state governance and legislative matters.
62. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as it aligns with the constitutional provisions that grant the President the authority to make rules for more efficiently conducting the government’s business, including allocating responsibilities among ministers. However, Statement 2 is incorrect because all executive actions of the Government of India are taken in the name of the President, not the Prime Minister, as per the constitutional framework. This underscores the President’s role as the ceremonial head of state, with executive actions being carried out under his or her name.
63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence motion in India:
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Constitution of India does not explicitly mention the No-Confidence Motion, but it has become an integral part of parliamentary procedure, allowing the Lok Sabha to express its lack of confidence in the government. Since the government is formed by the majority in the Lok Sabha, a No-Confidence Motion is relevant only in this lower house, where it can directly affect the stability of the government. If passed, it requires the government to resign. This reflects the parliamentary principle of the government’s accountability to the House of the People.
71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the states falls under its
a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) Original jurisdiction
d) Writ jurisdiction
Answer: c) Original jurisdiction
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India’s original jurisdiction refers to its exclusive authority to hear and decide disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between different states. This jurisdiction is original because such cases can be initiated in the Supreme Court directly, without having to go through lower courts first. It underscores the Supreme Court’s role in maintaining the federal structure of India by resolving constitutional disputes between different levels of government.
75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
a) The President of India
b) The Parliament
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) The Law Commission
Answer: b) The Parliament
Explanation: The Parliament of India holds the authority to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court, including the Chief Justice, through legislation. This power reflects the legislative branch’s role in determining the composition of the judiciary to ensure its effective functioning, addressing the growing backlog of cases, and adapting to the country’s evolving judicial needs.
TOPICS COVERED by U.P.S.C. for POLITY PRELIMS 2014
Parliament, Directive Principles of State Policy, State Government, Panchayati Raj, Union Territories and Special Areas.